Talk:Adam Smith

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By Zeus people! whoever writes this articles? Adam Smith was NOT an economist. He was a moral philosopher, which becomes pretty obvious by the following: a) he studied philosophy, b)held a chair of philosophy, c)economics was not an independent science in his days, and d)his writings refer to individuals' moral sentiments, and how they affect personal and group behavior. Also, stating that "[An inquiry into the nature and causes of] the wealth of nations was [u]his book[/u]" is wrong. It is ONE of his books (true enough the most well known), but the origins of his theory can be found in his 1759 "Theory of moral sentiments". AMATEURS! IGNORANT AMATEURS!!! (i won't even go into discussing the presentation of his contributions - or lack thereof.)

some say he was the first economist Jaques 05:54, 29 March 2007 (EDT)

Invisible hand

Smith uses "invisible hand" in B.IV, Ch.2, Of Restraints upon the Importation from Foreign Countries in paragraph IV.2.9 [1] RobS 11:54, 29 May 2007 (EDT)

A search of the link RobS suggests above finds not a single use of the phrase "invisible hand." NitramNos 15:20, 29 May 2007 (EDT)

Okay, well keep digging you guys. It's common knowledge that "invisible hand" and "Adam Smith" go together. So we ought to be able to come up with lots of references for that association. --Ed Poor 15:22, 29 May 2007 (EDT)
Right here. [2] RobS 15:24, 29 May 2007 (EDT)
I gave the exact cite, including paragraph number,
  • He generally, indeed, neither intends to promote the public interest, nor knows how much he is promoting it. By preferring the support of domestic to that of foreign industry, he intends only his own security; and by directing that industry in such a manner as its produce may be of the greatest value, he intends only his own gain, and he is in this, as in many other cases, led by an invisible hand to promote an end which was no part of his intention. RobS 15:26, 29 May 2007 (EDT)
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