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I'm just thinking out loud here. Must there be a distinct lack of a legal process for removing a dictator for it to be a dictatorship? What if, say, Hugo Chavez was ousted from office because he lost an election, and then simply said "no, I won't go". The legal process exists, but so long as the executive branch listens to him (i.e. so long as he still has control of coercive force), he's still a dictator, right? HelpJazz 10:17, 1 April 2008 (EDT)