Difference between revisions of "Talk:Frank Marshall Davis"

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Miriam-Webster's dictionary (or any other respected one) is A definitive source for the meanings of words, is it not? [[User:Dadsnagem2|Dadsnagem2]] 12:41, 11 August 2009 (EDT)
 
Miriam-Webster's dictionary (or any other respected one) is A definitive source for the meanings of words, is it not? [[User:Dadsnagem2|Dadsnagem2]] 12:41, 11 August 2009 (EDT)
 
:Nope. A Dictionary gives usage, not a definition.  [[User:RobSmith|Rob Smith]] 13:07, 11 August 2009 (EDT)
 
:Nope. A Dictionary gives usage, not a definition.  [[User:RobSmith|Rob Smith]] 13:07, 11 August 2009 (EDT)
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::News to me, but then I've only been using them for 40 years or so, and I have only a Ph.D. in English. [[User:Dadsnagem2|Dadsnagem2]] 13:34, 11 August 2009 (EDT)

Revision as of 17:34, August 11, 2009

http://brianakira.files.wordpress.com/2008/10/obama-frank-marshall-davis-fbi-file.pdf

The source does not really support the contention that he was a "self-admitted pedophile".Dadsnagem2 11:24, 24 July 2009 (EDT)

We would have to cite the original document itself, Sex Rebel, however such pornographic material maybe inappropriate for a family friendly website. Thus the London Telegraph.uk has been used. Rob Smith 12:35, 24 July 2009 (EDT)
I understand, but the description of Davis as a "self-admitted pedophile" is in contrast to his statement quoted in the Telegraph article: "I’m not one to go in for Lolitas. Usually I’d rather not bed a babe under 20." Perhaps a more accurate phrasing would be "self-admitted perpetrator of pedophilic acts".Dadsnagem2 12:54, 24 July 2009 (EDT)
Huh? Isn't it the same thing? Rob Smith 15:05, 24 July 2009 (EDT)
Merriam-Webster Online defines "pedophilia" as "sexual perversion in which children are the preferred sexual object" (emphasis added). From the source cited, one cannot fairly conclude that Mr. Davis preferred children as sexual objects or partners. Dadsnagem2 10:42, 27 July 2009 (EDT)
Wow. So what's the point, Miriam-Webster is the definitive source? Rob Smith 18:33, 27 July 2009 (EDT)

Miriam-Webster's dictionary (or any other respected one) is A definitive source for the meanings of words, is it not? Dadsnagem2 12:41, 11 August 2009 (EDT)

Nope. A Dictionary gives usage, not a definition. Rob Smith 13:07, 11 August 2009 (EDT)
News to me, but then I've only been using them for 40 years or so, and I have only a Ph.D. in English. Dadsnagem2 13:34, 11 August 2009 (EDT)