Difference between revisions of "Talk:Bible Translation Issues"

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Is the suggestion that this 17th c. version is the result of liberals?  Why would anyone suggest that this is a modern day liberal corruption?  I would love to see the textual evidence.
 
Is the suggestion that this 17th c. version is the result of liberals?  Why would anyone suggest that this is a modern day liberal corruption?  I would love to see the textual evidence.
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:I don't think anybody is saying that modern day liberals are time travelling to put lies into the KJV and you know very well nobody is saying that.  But when it comes to identifying what modern day liberals ARE saying, your rude tone ''(apology is accepted?)'', straw-man arguments, and refusal to actually examine the evidence gives you away.
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:Just because the passage in question is in the KJV, doesn't mean it was in the original text - just see the adulteress story if you need any proof of that. 
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:You are welcome to stay here and contribute in a positive way, but if you continue to start arguments just to push your agenda, we know how to deal with that to. [[User:JacobB|JacobB]] 21:17, 9 October 2009 (EDT)

Revision as of 01:17, October 10, 2009

Translation issues

I think that we are putting the cart before the horse here. It isn't a question of simply changing words to be more acceptable, it is an issue of going back to the sources and, from their context and comparison to other sources, determining their meaning. If you simply take existing texts and make them PC, the result will be an object of scorn. (This comment added by User:Clarence)

If you had read anything about the project instead of just believing what the liberal blogs and talk shows told you it was, you'd know that we are doing precisely that. Our translated gospel pages are littered with Greek words and description of their meanings, and using context to figure the meaning of ambiguous words is strewn about the talk pages of the various chapters of the New Testament on this project. JacobB 11:25, 9 October 2009 (EDT)

Please do not presume to suppose what I have read and not read. In point of fact I went over the materials on a few of your descriptive pages and that is what gave me pause. I guess you follow liberal blogs more than I because I have no idea that they are talking about this project.

You apology is accepted.

There is a broader question though. When I read something like this:

The earliest, most authentic manuscripts lack this verse set forth at Luke 23:34:[7]

Jesus said, "Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing."

Is this a liberal corruption of the original? This does not appear in any other Gospel, and the simple fact is that some of the persecutors of Jesus did know what they were doing. This quotation is a favorite of liberals but should not appear in a conservative Bible.

I see an assumption of meaning with no reference to the textual support for that criticism. Now, my KJV gives this verse as

Then said Jesus, Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do. And they parted his raiment, and cast lots.

Is the suggestion that this 17th c. version is the result of liberals? Why would anyone suggest that this is a modern day liberal corruption? I would love to see the textual evidence.


I don't think anybody is saying that modern day liberals are time travelling to put lies into the KJV and you know very well nobody is saying that. But when it comes to identifying what modern day liberals ARE saying, your rude tone (apology is accepted?), straw-man arguments, and refusal to actually examine the evidence gives you away.
Just because the passage in question is in the KJV, doesn't mean it was in the original text - just see the adulteress story if you need any proof of that.
You are welcome to stay here and contribute in a positive way, but if you continue to start arguments just to push your agenda, we know how to deal with that to. JacobB 21:17, 9 October 2009 (EDT)