The Greek grammar for Mark 16:8b is flawed: "to no one nothing they spoke,"<ref>https://biblehub.com/text/mark/16-8.htm</ref> which reinforces the likelihood that this phrase was a later, non-authentic addition. In Greek the phrase is a nonsensical "οὐδενὶ οὐδὲν," both of which are variations on "nothing" so illogically it is the functional equivalent of "nothing nothing." Neither Mark nor any other biblical author uses that phrase anywhere else, and it is unlikely to have been written by anyone knowledgeable of Greek. It is impossible to translate coherently.<ref>https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/75642/does-the-phrase-%CE%BF%E1%BD%90%CE%B4%CE%B5%CE%BD%E1%BD%B6-%CE%BF%E1%BD%90%CE%B4%E1%BD%B2%CE%BD-%CE%B5%E1%BC%B6%CF%80%CE%B1%CE%BD-in-mark-168-mean-that-the-women-could-not</ref> | The Greek grammar for Mark 16:8b is flawed: "to no one nothing they spoke,"<ref>https://biblehub.com/text/mark/16-8.htm</ref> which reinforces the likelihood that this phrase was a later, non-authentic addition. In Greek the phrase is a nonsensical "οὐδενὶ οὐδὲν," both of which are variations on "nothing" so illogically it is the functional equivalent of "nothing nothing." Neither Mark nor any other biblical author uses that phrase anywhere else, and it is unlikely to have been written by anyone knowledgeable of Greek. It is impossible to translate coherently.<ref>https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/75642/does-the-phrase-%CE%BF%E1%BD%90%CE%B4%CE%B5%CE%BD%E1%BD%B6-%CE%BF%E1%BD%90%CE%B4%E1%BD%B2%CE%BD-%CE%B5%E1%BC%B6%CF%80%CE%B1%CE%BD-in-mark-168-mean-that-the-women-could-not</ref> |