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:::But what percentage of the overall British population learned Latin in school in the 1700s?  Perhaps only 10%?  Most Latin appreviations did not catch on with the general population the way that "A.M." did.  The most plausible explanation is its proximity to "[[A.D.]]"--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 18:19, 12 June 2012 (EDT)
 
:::But what percentage of the overall British population learned Latin in school in the 1700s?  Perhaps only 10%?  Most Latin appreviations did not catch on with the general population the way that "A.M." did.  The most plausible explanation is its proximity to "[[A.D.]]"--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 18:19, 12 June 2012 (EDT)
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::::Nonetheless etymological creation power lies not with those who use the language. One must remember that our records of language from the 1700s (both Britain and America) are not vernacular English of the working classes but written English of those who were educated. This was before widespread adoption of clocks and timepieces, which came later with the [[industrial revolution]] and the railways. Again, I highly disagree that likeness to AM would be a significant contributor. Those that would have used the world in our written records would have been educated in Latin, and would therefore be aware of the etymological roots of '''both''' AM and AD. Since the A stands for '''anno''' and '''ante''' respectively, there is no etymological proximity at all between the two. [[User:HumanGeographer|HumanGeographer]] 18:35, 12 June 2012 (EDT)
    
== It Really Is Amazing... ==
 
== It Really Is Amazing... ==

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