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→Personal opinion of Andrew Schlafly: @PetyrB
:::If John wrote his Gospel in Aramaic, than it's possible that in the original text of the Gospel the phrase that was later translated to "υἱός ἄνθρωπος" was even more explicit in recognizing Jesus as God's son. While I think that "the Son, a human being" is a viable translation of "υἱός ἄνθρωπος", I believe that the original Aramaic phrase was probably even more explicit. - [[User:PetyrB|PetyrB]] 11:51, 24 June 2014 (EDT)
:::If John wrote his Gospel in Aramaic, than it's possible that in the original text of the Gospel the phrase that was later translated to "υἱός ἄνθρωπος" was even more explicit in recognizing Jesus as God's son. While I think that "the Son, a human being" is a viable translation of "υἱός ἄνθρωπος", I believe that the original Aramaic phrase was probably even more explicit. - [[User:PetyrB|PetyrB]] 11:51, 24 June 2014 (EDT)
::::"the Son, a human being" is an excellent translation for υἱός ἄνθρωπος, just not for the phrase ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπο which is used in the Gospels. You should have recognized the difference. --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 12:01, 24 June 2014 (EDT)