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Talk:Matthew 1-9 (Translated) (view source)
Revision as of 12:32, October 21, 2009
, 12:32, October 21, 2009→Matthew 1:23: new section
"Sufficient unto the day is the evil thereof." vs "The bad things that happen today are enough to worry about today." . A day's evil is enough ''for itself.'' [[User:Daniel1212|Daniel1212]] 19:47, 10 October 2009 (EDT)
"Sufficient unto the day is the evil thereof." vs "The bad things that happen today are enough to worry about today." . A day's evil is enough ''for itself.'' [[User:Daniel1212|Daniel1212]] 19:47, 10 October 2009 (EDT)
== Matthew 1:23 ==
Was Jesus born of a virgin? In the analysis segment of the translation, it states that Matthew refers to Isaiah 7:14 from the Greek LXX. The LXX translated the Hebrew word almah in Isaiah 7:14 as parthenos. But while parthenos may mean virgin in Greek, almah in Hebrew means young woman. Betulah is the Hebrew word used to mean virgin. In Genesis 24:16, where Abraham's servant was sent to find a wife for Isaac, Rebekah is described as a "maiden [who] was very beautiful, a virgin [betulah] whom no man had known". (From the JPS Torah Commentary) The word maiden here is naarah, which Strong's defines as a young, adolescent girl. It might be assumed that she is a virgin, yet the text further explains that she is a virgin, and then qualifies that with the phrase "whom no man had known". Nahum Sarna, in the JPS Torah Commentary, writes that even betulah by itself doesn't connote a virgin without a qualifying phrase, as in Gen. 24:16. He mentions Joel 1:8, where a betulah laments the husband of her youth. He also cites "an Aramaic incantation text [that] speaks of a 'bethultha' who is pregnant". When Isaiah wrote that an "almah shall conceive and bear a son", without using any qualifying phrases that even the term betulah seems to require to connote a virgin, can we then say that Isaiah was foreseeing a virgin birth? Was Matthew reading too much into the Greek word parthenos? Comments? - Danielitld