Changes

Jump to navigation Jump to search

Talk:Bible Translation Issues (view source)

Revision as of 16:37, February 21, 2010

612 bytes added ,  16:37, February 21, 2010
→‎Issue of "master" or "teacher" or ... "lord": Use of the term "lord" is also imperfect, but has had widespread usage in English throughout history and conveys an image of both employer and master
Line 83: Line 83:  
::::The use of 'master' is definitely archaic today, but that's because the social structures between people have changed as well.  If we were describing the lord/serf relationship of feudal times, it would be hard to convey that using only contemporary terms, because we're describing a system that doesn't exist today.<br/>
 
::::The use of 'master' is definitely archaic today, but that's because the social structures between people have changed as well.  If we were describing the lord/serf relationship of feudal times, it would be hard to convey that using only contemporary terms, because we're describing a system that doesn't exist today.<br/>
 
::::In working with the four Gospels of the New Testament, we're looking at descriptions of what happened in the places Jesus passed through at that point in history.  Preserving the original intent and messages means that we may need to rely on the frequent use of terms that seem archaic, but really aren't if they are the best way to describe things that don't exist today.  My two cents, anyway.  -[[User:ChrisY|ChrisY]] 11:31, 21 February 2010 (EST)
 
::::In working with the four Gospels of the New Testament, we're looking at descriptions of what happened in the places Jesus passed through at that point in history.  Preserving the original intent and messages means that we may need to rely on the frequent use of terms that seem archaic, but really aren't if they are the best way to describe things that don't exist today.  My two cents, anyway.  -[[User:ChrisY|ChrisY]] 11:31, 21 February 2010 (EST)
 +
 +
:::::I agree in principle, but wonder if "master" was ''ever'' used in the manner proposed by many Bible translations.  I think it works with the expression "a man cannot serve two masters," but it does not seem to best convey the original intent in today's language in many other contexts.  Use of the term "lord" is also imperfect, but has had widespread usage in English throughout history and conveys an image of both employer and master.  Do you agree that the same Greek term can and should be translated differently for different contexts?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 11:37, 21 February 2010 (EST)
Aschlafly
Anthony, Irenaeus, Siteadmin, Bureaucrats, Check users, nsAm_Govt_101RO, nsAm_Govt_101RW, nsAm_Govt_101_ta, nsJudgesRO, nsJudgesRW, nsJudges_talkRO, nsJudges_talkRW, nsTeam2RO, nsTeam2RW, nsTeam2_talkRO, nsTeam2_talkRW, oversight, Administrators
125,891

edits

Retrieved from "https://www.conservapedia.com/Special:MobileDiff/755989"

Navigation menu