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Talk:John 15-21 (Translated) (view source)
Revision as of 01:35, February 28, 2010
, 01:35, February 28, 2010→Reversion explained: Jesus probably ''did'' speak Greek, and there is liberal bias in denying that fact.
:::Your claim seems to have some basis. My Ancient Greek dictionary lists δεξιός as meaning, other than "right-handed, "able", and "fortunate", also "cautious", which is consistent with the notion of "conservative" (i.e., resisting change). PERSONALLY, I am still not convinced that that was what Jesus meant, as Jesus did not speak Greek, but the hypothesis is etymologically plausible. --[[User:Maquissar|Maquissar]] 18:28, 27 February 2010 (EST)
:::Your claim seems to have some basis. My Ancient Greek dictionary lists δεξιός as meaning, other than "right-handed, "able", and "fortunate", also "cautious", which is consistent with the notion of "conservative" (i.e., resisting change). PERSONALLY, I am still not convinced that that was what Jesus meant, as Jesus did not speak Greek, but the hypothesis is etymologically plausible. --[[User:Maquissar|Maquissar]] 18:28, 27 February 2010 (EST)
::::Jesus probably ''did'' speak Greek, and there is [[liberal bias]] in denying that fact. Moreover, John wrote in Greek, and it's significant that John chose "δεξιός" to convey the point, possibly a political one.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 20:35, 27 February 2010 (EST)