:A reasonable speculation most probably would be that if Jesus had actually written in the dust any one, or all ten, of the commandments of the [[Ten Commandments|Decalogue]], the [https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?page=3&strongs=H1697&t=KJV ten "words" '''דָּבָרים''' ''dabarim''], the writer of the Gospel would have recorded them in his narrative—''if the Lord had written '''anything''' in the form of words or letters'' it would have been noted and remembered according to the promise of Jesus himself in John 14:26. See <br> [http://biblehub.com/commentaries/john/8-6.htm multiple commentaries on John 6:8]; <br> also [http://biblehub.com/multi/john/8-6.htm multiple versions of John 6:8] <br> and [https://biblehub.com/topical/t/ten_commandments.htm Topical Bible: Ten Commandments (Words)].
:NOTE The extensive phrase at the end of John 8:6 in the [[King James Bible]] "''as though he heard them not''" is not a part of the Bible. The KJV translators added here a ''gloss'' not found in any earlier English translations, neither in the Textus Receptus nor in any earlier extant Greek [[Bible manuscript evidence|manuscript evidence]] of this passage. (Such a large gloss might be more appropriate in a [[paraphrase]], or as part of an explanatory [[redaction]] such as the text of this encyclopedic ''Harmony of the Gospel'', but it is not appropriate for a translation.) The editors indicate that it is not in the Greek text by printing their eisegetically added phrase ''in italics'' in every published edition of the KJV. This is done in harmony with the translators' express intention of clearly showing, according to their general editorial policy of translation, that some words of their readings in English are not found in the Greek text, but were regarded by ''the translators'' as necessary, in their opinion, to "complete the meaning" and simply make the text conform to good English grammatical form. But careful comparison of the interlinear [[Textus Receptus|TR]] Greek and KJV English Bible text also reveals that in some places the King James translators have altered the reading of the text and its meaning in violation of Revelation 22:18-19, in order to support their particular doctrinal opinions in the eyes of their Christian readers. For example, in [http://biblehub.com/multi/1_corinthians/11-27.htm 1 Corinthians 11:27], where '''<big>or</big>''' is changed to '''<big>and</big>''' in opposition to the Catholic practice at the time of giving communion to the laity in one form only (the [[Host (Communion)|Host]]), without also giving them communion from the cup (the Precious Blood) as being reserved to the celebrant alone. See [[Eisegesis]], also [http://www.bible-researcher.com/kjvdefects.html ''Defects of the King James Version'' by Isaac H. Hall]. They did not stand solely on the principle of ''[[dynamic equivalence]]'' in translation, but were more strongly influenced by their own loyalty to the Crown of England as Head of the [[Church of England]] and the theological doctrines of the Church of England in principal opposition to the doctrines of Catholicism and the Pope of Rome, and opposition to the Patriarch of Constantinople, and to the other three heads of the ''[[Pentarchy]]'' in Antioch, Alexandria (Egypt) and Jerusalem, as well as the Patriarch of Moscow ([[Russian Orthodox Church]]). Compare [[Badger skins (Bible)]], which discusses the problematical KJV translation-reading of the Hebrew '''תחשׁ''' ''taḥash'' in the Law of Moses, a reading which totally contradicts the Law of Moses and according to ''Encyclopedia Judaica'' <small>TAḤASH</small> "has no basis in fact".
:In any study of the scriptures it is better to adjust our understanding to the scriptures than to adjust the scriptures to our understanding. (See [[Essay: How to choose a Bible]].)