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Aschlafy, to make your point you have to argue that Jesus was intentionally misleading us in the second verse where it is written that "''He (God) spoke to us through (his) son''" (ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ).  --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 12:12, 27 October 2012 (EDT)
 
Aschlafy, to make your point you have to argue that Jesus was intentionally misleading us in the second verse where it is written that "''He (God) spoke to us through (his) son''" (ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ).  --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 12:12, 27 October 2012 (EDT)
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== The whole idea is absurd, let's delete it. ==
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Rereading the epistle, it becomes clear that this insight is nothing but absurd: e.g., Hebrews 13:23-24 show that the author is one of the Christians in Italy. You have to bend, to torture scripture to argue otherwise - and for me, it is clear that the author of this essay didn't read the epistle in detail before making this astonishing claim.
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So, I'm for deleting this essay, as it makes Conservapedia looking stupid. Unfortunately, me arguing for deleting this article is the best way to get it featured on the main page. But please, please, think twice before doing so.
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--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 12:36, 27 October 2012 (EDT)
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