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Mystery:Did Jesus Write the Epistle to the Hebrews? (view source)
Revision as of 19:59, December 23, 2012
, 19:59, December 23, 2012→Rebuttals in detail: often repeated, but still unanswered point
::::'''Pro:''' The Epistle is obviously directed to those well-versed in the Hebrew scriptures, which means Hebrew was their first language. Why would anyone other than Jesus quote Hebrew scriptures for a Hebrew audience in perfect Greek???--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 21:58, 10 December 2012 (EST)
::::'''Pro:''' The Epistle is obviously directed to those well-versed in the Hebrew scriptures, which means Hebrew was their first language. Why would anyone other than Jesus quote Hebrew scriptures for a Hebrew audience in perfect Greek???--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 21:58, 10 December 2012 (EST)
:::::'''Contra:''' As you said: ''For teaching purposes, the powerful Greek language would have been useful.''
:::::'''Contra:''' As you said: ''For teaching purposes, the powerful Greek language would have been useful.''
*''...speaking about Himself in the third person'''
:'''Contra:''' The use of the third person for the author can be found often in classical literature. E.g., when we read
::{{cquote|Caesar saw the horse.}}
:it could well be that Caesar was the author of this sentence. But what's about
::{{cquote|Caesar saw me.}}
:Here it is obvious that Caesar is not the author, as we have an instance of the first person (''me''). The same holds true for the ''Epistle to the Hebrews''. One example is Hebrews 3:6
:Χριστὸς δὲ ὡς υἱὸς ἐπὶ τὸν οἶκον αὐτοῦ· οὗ οἶκός ἐσμεν ἡμεῖς ἐάνπερ τὴν παρρησίαν καὶ τὸ καύχημα τῆς ἐλπίδος μέχρι τέλους βεβαίαν κατάσχωμεν
:Reading this, one sees that Christ is set over the house, while ''we'' (including the author!) are the house. A diligent study of the epistle reveals a couple of such examples.
== Links ==
== Links ==