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Talk:John 1-7 (Translated) (view source)

Revision as of 19:21, June 23, 2014

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→‎Elaboration: "υἱὸς ὁ ἄνθρωπος" doesn't wash, because that Greek phrase would be translated as "Son the man" or "Son the human being," falsely implying in English there was another son who was no

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*Jesus Christ listener heard that he described himself as "Son of Man", not less, not more. They understood, that he was the Son of God, but this took an insight. A modern reader should get the same insight, and should not be forced on his path by words Jesus Christ  d i d  n o t  u t t e r.

--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 06:09, 23 June 2014 (EDT)

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:A literal translation would be "the Son, a human being." It would not be properly translated as "the Son of man," a nonsensical phrase in English. Your claim that the Greek for "the Son, a human being" would read "υἱὸς ὁ ἄνθρωπος" doesn't wash, because that Greek phrase would be translated as "Son the man" or "Son the human being," falsely implying in English there was another son who was not a human being. Rather, the Greek clarifies that the Son IS a human being, and hence "the Son, a human being" in English.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 15:21, 23 June 2014 (EDT)

Aschlafly

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