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Michael  Ukleja also has identified these terms in several examples of classical Greek literature, which  clearly  refer  to  homosexuals.<ref>P.  Michael  Ukleja,  `Homosexuality  in  the  New Testament' in Bibliotheca Sacra 140 (1983).</ref>
 
Michael  Ukleja also has identified these terms in several examples of classical Greek literature, which  clearly  refer  to  homosexuals.<ref>P.  Michael  Ukleja,  `Homosexuality  in  the  New Testament' in Bibliotheca Sacra 140 (1983).</ref>
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Bible Issues adds,
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Bible Issues adds that if Paul had intended to discuss temple prostitution, he could have used the Greek word porne. The Hebrew word qadesh means cult prostitute (as seen in Deuteronomy 23:17), and when the Old Testament was translated from Hebrew into Greek (the Septuagint), the translators used the Greek word porne - not malakoi or arsenokoitai. "This is a damning indictment against the gay advocate’s argument". <ref>http://www.bibleissues.org/homosexuality.html</ref>
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:Are there other words Paul could have used if he intended to discuss temple prostitution? The answer is yes. The Hebrew word qadesh means cult prostitute (Deuteronomy 23:17)... Now when the Old Testament was translated from Hebrew into Greek (the Septuagint), how did the translators handle the word qadesh? In Deuteronomy 23:17, they used the Greek word porne ... not malakoi or arsenokoitai ... This is a damning indictment against the gay advocate’s argument. <ref>http://www.bibleissues.org/homosexuality.html</ref>
      
Gagnon concludes,  
 
Gagnon concludes,  

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