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*Indeed. Didn't Pythagoras discover the 4:5:6 ratio in the frequencies of the major chord? And it seems unlikely, to say the least, that he ''invented'' that chord. [[User:Dpbsmith|Dpbsmith]] 08:05, 23 May 2007 (EDT)
*Indeed. Didn't Pythagoras discover the 4:5:6 ratio in the frequencies of the major chord? And it seems unlikely, to say the least, that he ''invented'' that chord. [[User:Dpbsmith|Dpbsmith]] 08:05, 23 May 2007 (EDT)
He did. Once again I have to rely on my faithful books. Groves defines a chord as: "The simultaneous sounding of two or more notes." The Oxford Companion, when describing harmony, calls it a "...a succession of chords,..." It may be that my books are describing the harmonization of melody as removed from the, um, static sound of a chord. Certainly Oxford goes on about the ninth century being the time when the "tune" or melodic line, "formally sung by all the voices in unison", was given to the middle voices (tenors) whilst the other voices "enwrapped them". And my Chamber's Encyclopedia calls the period 850-1160 "the advent of polyphony".
That was church music of course, which is all we have that is described - the songs of the field and feast have not come down to us, and it may be that these lusty folk were not as imprisoned in the form of the music, and harmonized like mad. I too find it hard to understand something so basic as a harmonized tune would be so relatively recent. I tend to hope you are right. [[User:AlanE|AlanE]] 16:03, 23 May 2007 (EDT)