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| | What leads you to believe that God has revealed other spiritual truths anywhere else? 2 Timothy 3:16 says "All Scripture is inspired by God...". The Bible itself claims it's inspired. Granted, this isn't an essential issue, so not holding to Biblical inerrancy doesn't negate your salvation. (I'm assuming your a Christian.) But, it does lead down to the path of liberalism in regards to Christianity and can lead to heresy. Not trying to judge you, just saying. [[User:Ultimahero|Ultimahero]] 23:36, 6 May 2008 (EDT) | | What leads you to believe that God has revealed other spiritual truths anywhere else? 2 Timothy 3:16 says "All Scripture is inspired by God...". The Bible itself claims it's inspired. Granted, this isn't an essential issue, so not holding to Biblical inerrancy doesn't negate your salvation. (I'm assuming your a Christian.) But, it does lead down to the path of liberalism in regards to Christianity and can lead to heresy. Not trying to judge you, just saying. [[User:Ultimahero|Ultimahero]] 23:36, 6 May 2008 (EDT) |
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| | + | :Let's qualify that stetement a bit, Ultima. As I'm sure you know, not every translation of the Bible renders 2 Timothy 3:16 in the same fashion. My New American Standard does, indeed, say that "All Scripture is inspired by God." My King James says "All Scripture is given by inspiration of God." On the other hand, my reprint of the American Standard Version says "Every scripture inspired of God..." My Wycliffe says "For al scripture inspirid of God is profitable..." Other translations, if I recall correctly, use more metaphorical language (the phrase "God-breathed" springs to mind, though I can't immediately recall which edition employs that metaphor...ESV, perhaps?) |
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| | + | :Now: I know that some of these translations are regarded as having greater validity than others. Certainly, I would tend towards the NASB in matters of serious Bible scholarship. However, it is important to keep in mind that we're dealing with interpretation on many levels. The authors of the various editions engaged in interpretation when formulating the modern English wording; I am engaging in interpretation when I select one translation over another. |
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| | + | :Assuming we can agree on a translation, there's also the matter of what is actually said. The NASB confirms that all Scripture is inspired by God, and profitable for instruction; it does not say that all Scripture is literal. Clearly, that is not the case, and I don't think anyone with a serious interest in the Bible would claim that it was; Christ's parables were certainly "profitable for instruction" (and more than inspired by God, since they came directly from the source.) They were not, on the other hand, meant to be taken literally. |
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| | + | :There's also the matter of "Scripture" (or alternately, "Writing" in certain translations) versus "Bible." 2 Timothy doesn't say "The Bible is inspired..." It says "All Scripture is inspired." What, then, of the Apocrypha and other texts rejected by the early Church? Did they overstep their boundaries in using fallible human judgement to determine which writings were a part of "All Scripture" and which were not? (One might argue that God would not permit them to make an error in such a selection, but I am not familiar with any textual support for that notion in the Bible. Certainly, history teaches us that the Church is capable of serious error and corruption.) |
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| | + | :As a result, while mindful of, say, 2 Peter 1:20's warning that "...no prophecy of Scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation," it seems to me as if it's impossible to engage in a study of the Bible WITHOUT engaging in interpretation. To claim that 2 Timothy establishes that the Bible is inerrant is certainly a valid interpretation, but it IS an interpretation, and not the only one. |
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| | + | [[User:BenP|BenP]] 17:31, 7 May 2008 (EDT) |