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565 bytes added ,  23:07, October 8, 2008
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:I've heard homosexuals use the same argument to excuse themselves from the verses from Leviticus that apply to them, but many Christians believe that the OT laws on sexual morality are still binding.  The difference from the OT dietary restrictions is that the dietary restrictions, other than those maintained in Acts 15:20, were explicitly set aside in the NT.  By contrast, the NT repeatedly condemns fornication, and many Bible scholars interpret the Greek word translated as "fornication" to include all forms of sexual immorality and thus to incorporate the OT sexual laws by reference.  [[User:DavidE|DavidE]] 13:18, 8 October 2008 (EDT)
 
:I've heard homosexuals use the same argument to excuse themselves from the verses from Leviticus that apply to them, but many Christians believe that the OT laws on sexual morality are still binding.  The difference from the OT dietary restrictions is that the dietary restrictions, other than those maintained in Acts 15:20, were explicitly set aside in the NT.  By contrast, the NT repeatedly condemns fornication, and many Bible scholars interpret the Greek word translated as "fornication" to include all forms of sexual immorality and thus to incorporate the OT sexual laws by reference.  [[User:DavidE|DavidE]] 13:18, 8 October 2008 (EDT)
 
:: My friend DavidE, the prohibitions on charging interest for loans (usury), wearing garments of two types of fabric, etc., were not explicitly set aside in the NT.  Do they still apply?  In reality of course they only applied to the Jews when originally formulated, and non-Jews were never held to any of those laws ... [[User:Ungtss|Ungtss]] 13:39, 8 October 2008 (EDT)
 
:: My friend DavidE, the prohibitions on charging interest for loans (usury), wearing garments of two types of fabric, etc., were not explicitly set aside in the NT.  Do they still apply?  In reality of course they only applied to the Jews when originally formulated, and non-Jews were never held to any of those laws ... [[User:Ungtss|Ungtss]] 13:39, 8 October 2008 (EDT)
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:::Good points.  That's why I'm asking some of the Biblical experts here on CP to help out and clarify this basic and important question:  If Christians consider it proper and acceptable to no longer adhere to some Old Testament rules (like keeping  Kosher) but not others (like the Ten Commandments), what is the criteria used to determine which O.T. prohibitions can be ignored without it being a sin?  That would help answer where the sex-during-menstruation prohibition falls in a contemporary sense.  --[[User:DinsdaleP|DinsdaleP]] 19:07, 8 October 2008 (EDT)
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