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Talk:Matthew 1-9 (Translated) (view source)
Revision as of 01:17, November 14, 2009
, 01:17, November 14, 2009→Matthew 4:19: the "fishers of ____" is a masculine analogy akin to a football analogy today. The person must be masculine to fit the metaphor. Moreover, the Greek word is typically translated a
In Tyndale's time (early 16th century), 'men' was a gender-neutral word to refer to people, male and female. This was already becoming archaic by the time of the KJV (much of the language in the KJV was old-fashioned partly because that seems to have been a prestigious writing style and partly because it relied very heavily on Tyndale's work). In any case, 'fishers of people' is a more accurate translation into modern English than 'fishers of men' and the notion that 'people' might sound politically-correct and gender-neutral to those familiar with the KJV is neither here not there. [[User:JosephMac|JosephMac]] 20:01, 13 November 2009 (EST)
In Tyndale's time (early 16th century), 'men' was a gender-neutral word to refer to people, male and female. This was already becoming archaic by the time of the KJV (much of the language in the KJV was old-fashioned partly because that seems to have been a prestigious writing style and partly because it relied very heavily on Tyndale's work). In any case, 'fishers of people' is a more accurate translation into modern English than 'fishers of men' and the notion that 'people' might sound politically-correct and gender-neutral to those familiar with the KJV is neither here not there. [[User:JosephMac|JosephMac]] 20:01, 13 November 2009 (EST)
: A mere three minutes between commenting and changing is obviously not long enough. Moreover, your comment does not respond to mine: the "fishers of ____" is a masculine analogy akin to a football analogy today. The person must be masculine to fit the metaphor. Moreover, the Greek word is typically translated as "man" or "men", not as "people".--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 20:17, 13 November 2009 (EST)