so that for <math>n\geq 2</math>, the coefficient of <math>x^n</math> on the right hand side is <math>(n+1)(n+2)a_{n+2}-na_n+a_{n-2}</math>. So we need only set this equal to <math>1/(n!)</math> to find an infinite series representation of our solution. If we're given the values of <math>y(0), y'(0)</math>, as we frequently are in applications (remember what we said about having two "degrees of freedom" in a DEQ involving second-order derivatives?) we can solve this completely. Let's say <math>y(0)=0, y'(0)=1</math>. We have
+
so that for <math>n\geq 2</math>, the coefficient of <math>x^n</math> on the right hand side is <math>(n+1)(n+2)a_{n+2}-na_n+a_{n-2}</math>. So we need only set this equal to <math>1/(n!)</math> to find an infinite series representation of our solution. If we're given the values of <math>y(0), y'(0) \ </math>, as we frequently are in applications (remember what we said about having two "degrees of freedom" in a DEQ involving second-order derivatives?) we can solve this completely. Let's say <math>y(0)=0, y'(0)=1</math>. We have