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Talk:Counterexamples to the Bible (view source)

Revision as of 20:08, August 14, 2010

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::::That option, however, raises other questions, as I said. There must be something we are missing perhaps. --[[User:MarcoT2|MarcoT2]] 21:50, 11 August 2010 (EDT)
 
::::That option, however, raises other questions, as I said. There must be something we are missing perhaps. --[[User:MarcoT2|MarcoT2]] 21:50, 11 August 2010 (EDT)
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== Opinion from talk page ==
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*that there are extreme inconsistencies in the lineage of Jesus, as given by the Apostles Matthew and Luke in their respective gospels. Also, the prophecy that Jesus would be descended from David was unfulfilled because of his so-called virgin birth. Lineages could only be traced through male parents in ancient Judea and Jesus did not have one.
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:Reply: your conclusion is unjustified and your statement about the lineages unspecific and inconsequential.  Jesus was significant because of his divine nature.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 16:08, 14 August 2010 (EDT)
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*that we have a non-existant prophecy in verse 23 (as seen above). Of course, Isaiah was speaking of events of his time, not of the future, as evidenced in Isaiah 9:6 with the use of, “For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given…” Not withstanding, the verse presented is transcribed incorrectly anayway. It was translated from the Greek text, and there the word “parthenos” is used, which does mean a virgin. However, the word in the original Hebrew, from which the Greek was taken, did not mean “virgin.” The word there is “almah,” which means simply a young woman. In the later Greek translation, the error was corrected, the proper Greek equivalent “neanis” being substituted. But it suited the purpose of the Church to leave in its “virgin” Greek, and so it has come down to us.
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:This has been long debated but not resolved on one side as you suggest.  Feel free to discuss further here.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 16:08, 14 August 2010 (EDT)
Aschlafly
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