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::::::The application of the word "at" in both English and Greek applies here; this is confirmed in both the KJV and the Textus Receptus with Strong's numbers.  There is no single word or phrase in this verse referring even remotely to the term "about."  So, it is very clear from the narrative that the writer meant the healing happened ''at'' that hour; the witnesses who are part of that writing said the healing happened ''at'' that hour, and anything else that says otherwise is nothing more than a private interpretation meant to water-down the Gospel or change its meaning outright.  [[User:Karajou|Karajou]] 15:05, 21 March 2011 (EDT)
 
::::::The application of the word "at" in both English and Greek applies here; this is confirmed in both the KJV and the Textus Receptus with Strong's numbers.  There is no single word or phrase in this verse referring even remotely to the term "about."  So, it is very clear from the narrative that the writer meant the healing happened ''at'' that hour; the witnesses who are part of that writing said the healing happened ''at'' that hour, and anything else that says otherwise is nothing more than a private interpretation meant to water-down the Gospel or change its meaning outright.  [[User:Karajou|Karajou]] 15:05, 21 March 2011 (EDT)
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:::::::''About'' is a common meaning of ''ἐν''. But let's have a look at the whole verse: ''ἐπύθετο οὖν τὴν ὥραν παρ’ αὐτῶν ἐν ᾗ κομψότερον ἔσχεν εἶπαν οὖν αὐτῷ ὅτι ἐχθὲς ὥραν ἑβδόμην ἀφῆκεν αὐτὸν ὁ πυρετός. ''
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:::::::The nobleman asked for for the ''hour at which'' the fever broke (ὥραν ἐν ᾗ). Here you find the accusative of ὥρα - as this is the object of the sentence, the preposition ''at'' (ἐν) reigning the dative  (ᾗ). The servants don't say: ''yesterday at the seventh hour'' (ἐχθὲς ἐν ὥρᾷ ἑβδόμῳ), but ''yesterday the seventh hour'' (ἐχθὲς ὥραν ἑβδόμην). Generally, the use of the accusative indicates a duration in time. That make sense:
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:::::::*even though the fever left abruptly, it's hard to spot its sudden absence
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:::::::*as I elaborated earlier, time measurements were difficult to perform for the said reasons.
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:::::::''Sola scriptura'' (and [[Strong's concordance]]) isn't enough for an adequate translation of the Bible: you have to have some knowledge about the time and the circumstances. My favorite examples for this are 1 Kings 7 - and John 11:9 (''Jesus answered, Are there not twelve hours in the day? If any man walk in the day, he stumbles not, because he sees the light of this world.'') Using our concepts of days and hours, this doesn't make any sense, you have to understand the antic concept of time-keeping.
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:::::::Or do you think that 1 King 7 implies that [[pi]] equals 3, or John 11:9 that we have 720 minutes of daylight each day?
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:::::::[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 12:50, 22 March 2011 (EDT)
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