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/* Diminishing intelligence, etc. */
:The logic is simple and unmistakable. I doubt you've heard it before, but that's not a reason to reject it. Honestly, after all this discussion, I still don't see a logical objection to this counterexample.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:39, 17 June 2011 (EDT)
:::There's a few glaring problems with using the change in language between the Civil War and now to measure intelligence. Firstly, you're ignoring how the language has developed during the period, and has become more practical and less "flowery" - hardly a sign of less intelligence. Unless you're referring to text-speak of course, which hasn't exactly entered mainstream literature or business yet. In addition, you're ignoring the fact that for every Civil War letter that was written, there was at least an equal number of illiterate soldiers on either side. And the final point, which is baffling me, is that here you're using diminishing language skills to show that people are becoming less intelligent, and yet elsewhere on Conservapedia, you claim the language is becoming more conservative. Which is it, because you can't use language to prove two entirely contradictory points? [[User:TracyS|TracyS]] 08:14, 18 June 2011 (EDT)
::Andy, you forgot to do any math to support this counter example, and this counter example depends on a mathematical principle: regression and extrapolation. Let’s assume for the sake of any argument that human intelligence is declining, and let's also say it is declining rapidly, as you have insisted. If it is declining so rapidly in the last 200 years, then why wasn't the average person during the middle ages a genius by today's standards? If the slope is as steep as you insist, estimates the intelligence of people during Jesus's time would suggest that they were many orders of magnitude more intelligent than us, and while a few might have been, the Bible is full of examples of stupid, ignorant people, so this too seems unlikely according to the Bible and historical records. And remember, Andy, the slope of the decline does need to be consistent or abide by a known nonlinear function in order to perform the extrapolation you have suggested, this cannot be argued, this is math, math is not biased. Please, provide us with the math that your argument holds water, until then, this counter example should be removed, '''let’s not let this flawed counter example spoil the bunch.''' --[[User:Mike127|Mike127]] 00:09, 18 June 2011 (EDT)
