Difference between revisions of "Talk:Adam Smith"
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:Okay, well keep digging you guys. It's common knowledge that "invisible hand" and "Adam Smith" go together. So we ought to be able to come up with lots of references for that association. --[[User:Ed Poor|Ed Poor]] 15:22, 29 May 2007 (EDT) | :Okay, well keep digging you guys. It's common knowledge that "invisible hand" and "Adam Smith" go together. So we ought to be able to come up with lots of references for that association. --[[User:Ed Poor|Ed Poor]] 15:22, 29 May 2007 (EDT) | ||
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| + | ::Right here. [http://www.econlib.org/library/Smith/smWN.html] [[User:RobS|RobS]] 15:24, 29 May 2007 (EDT) | ||
Revision as of 19:24, May 29, 2007
By Zeus people! whoever writes this articles? Adam Smith was NOT an economist. He was a moral philosopher, which becomes pretty obvious by the following: a) he studied philosophy, b)held a chair of philosophy, c)economics was not an independent science in his days, and d)his writings refer to individuals' moral sentiments, and how they affect personal and group behavior. Also, stating that "[An inquiry into the nature and causes of] the wealth of nations was [u]his book[/u]" is wrong. It is ONE of his books (true enough the most well known), but the origins of his theory can be found in his 1759 "Theory of moral sentiments". AMATEURS! IGNORANT AMATEURS!!! (i won't even go into discussing the presentation of his contributions - or lack thereof.)
- some say he was the first economist Jaques 05:54, 29 March 2007 (EDT)
Invisible hand
Smith uses "invisible hand" in B.IV, Ch.2, Of Restraints upon the Importation from Foreign Countries in paragraph IV.2.9 [1] RobS 11:54, 29 May 2007 (EDT)
A search of the link RobS suggests above finds not a single use of the phrase "invisible hand." NitramNos 15:20, 29 May 2007 (EDT)
- Okay, well keep digging you guys. It's common knowledge that "invisible hand" and "Adam Smith" go together. So we ought to be able to come up with lots of references for that association. --Ed Poor 15:22, 29 May 2007 (EDT)