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"'''Son of Man'''" is the a common mistranslation, preferred by [[liberals]], which obscures Jesus's divinity. [[Jesus]] used an artful phrase to convey his divinity without committing the capital offense of blasphemy, which would have terminated His ministry before it completed. Notably, the [[Gospel of John]] does not use the phrase the same way as the other [[Gospels]] do.<ref>"The term, Son of man, is used by Jesus 80 times as a way to refer to himself (32 times in Matthew; 14 times in Mark; 26 times in Luke; and 10 times in a qualitatively different way from the Synoptic Gospels in John). ... The term occurs only five times in the rest of the New Testament outside the Gospels. In Acts 7:56, Stephen says that he sees the heaven open and the Son of man standing at the right hand of God; Hebrews 2:6 quotes Psalm 8:4 and applies the words to Jesus ...; and in Revelation 1:13-15 and 14:14 Jesus is 'One like a Son of man' (ὅμοιον υἱὸν ἀνθρώπου) and described in terms that evoke the imagery of Daniel 7 ...." [http://www.scielo.org.za/scielo.php?script=sci_arttext&pid=S2305-08532017000300004]</ref> The [[Gospel of Luke]] says that Jesus "will be called the Son of the Most High."<ref>{{bibleref|Luke|1|32}} ([[ESV]])</ref> [[Psalm 146|Psalm 146:3]] uses the phrase "son of man" in a negative way: "Put not your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no help." A better English translation which conveys the divinity would be "'''''The Son, as man'''''."<ref>Other possible translations are "The Son, a human being," "The Son, a man," or "The Son became Man" (the latter would commit blasphemy, however, which Jesus needed to avoid at the outset of his ministry).</ref> In other words, '''''simply replace "of" with "as" to restore the enigmatic intended implication of divinity''''', without committing blasphemy under the strict rules of the time. The versatility of "as" in modern English conveys the meaning of the awkward, unusual Greek phrase better than "of" does. The then-blasphemous declaration by [[Stephen]] which caused him to be martyred is better translated as "The Son, as man" rather than as "the Son of Man":*[[NIV]]: “Look,” he said, “I see heaven open and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God.” (Acts 7:56 NIV translation)*Better: He said, “Look, I see the heavens open, and The Son, as man, stands at God's right hand.” [[Acts 1-9 (Translated)#7:56|Acts 7:56]] The use of the phrase in [[Luke 1-8 (Translated)#6:5|Luke 6:5]] shows that "The Son, as man" makes more sense than "Son of man":*[[KJV]]: And he said unto them, That the Son of man is Lord also of the [[sabbath]].*Better: Jesustold them, "The Son, as man, is also Lord of the Sabbath!" The use of the phrase in Mark 10:45 illustrates the flaws in the "Son of Man" and the superiority of the "Son, as man" as the English translation:*For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve (NIV)*For even the Son, as man, did not come to be served, but to serve In Luke 24:7 use of the phrase "Son of Man" is confusing to the meaning, while use of "Son as man" would be much clearer:*the Son of Man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men ([[ESV]] )*the Son as man must be delivered into the hands of sinful menor perhaps better still:*The Son, a human being, must be delivered into the hands of sinful men ([[Luke_17-24_(Translated)#Chapter_24]]) Numerous other passages translate in a stronger way if "Son as man" is used rather than "Son of man," such as: "you may be judged worthy ... to describe himselfstand before the Son as man."<ref>[[Luke 17-24 (Translated)#21:36]]</ref>

Jesus' curing of the man beggar blind from birth was followed by Jesus asking him, "Do you believe in the Son of Man?" He responded, "Who is he, sir, that I may believe in him?" Jesus replied, "You have seen him, the one speaking with you is he." He The formerly blind man responded, "I do believe, Lord," and he worshiped Him.<ref>[http://www.usccb.org/bible/readings/032617.cfm]</ref> The translation "Son of Man" in English in that passage fails to capture the implication of "Son of God," which was obviously meant.<ref>The blind beggar would not have understood "Son of Man" to be a scriptural reference to a similar term referenced only once in the [[Book of Daniel]].</ref> In [[Matthew 20-28 (Translated)#26:64|Matthew 26:64]], [[Jesus]] says something so blasphemous that it caused the High Priest to demand his execution. It was either "Hereafter you will see 'the Son of man, sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven'" or "Hereafter you will see '''the'' Son ''as'' man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.'" The latter rendition is clearly blasphemous while the former is not.

The Greek version of how Jesus described himself is the awkward phrase "'''ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου'''," which is best can be translated as "'''the Son, a human being''' " or, more simply, "'''the Son, a as man'''." <ref>Literally, a word-for-word translation is "the son of the man" - [https://scholarsarchive.byu.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?referer=https://www.bing.com/&httpsredir=1&article=1236&context=studiaantiqua - Haley Wilson, "A SURVEY OF THE “SON OF MAN” FROM DANIEL TO JESUS, PART 1," p. 1]</ref> A full, wordy translation of the Greek would be "The Son, with the character of man." The Greek is likely a translation of an Aramaic phrase "bar enosha," which has the connotation of "a human."<ref>https://www.biblegateway.com/blog/2011/08/son-of-man-or-human-one-tough-translation-questions-raised-by-the-common-english-bible/</ref> The Greek wording implies the divinity of Jesus in a non-blasphemous manner, without Jesus expressly claiming to be God. [[Faith]] is then required to accept the obvious implication that Jesus was divine, and his opponents thereby had a difficult time catching him in the crime of blasphemy during his ministry.<ref>Other possible translations are less consistent with the Greek, and would have constituted the crime of blasphemy: "God as a man," "Son of Man from God," "God became man," "God descended as man," or "Christ, Son of [[God]]."</ref>

An overly wooden, word-for-word The pedantic translation of "'''ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου'''" would be is "'''the Son of the Man'''", " as τοὺ ἀνθρώπου is the genitive of ὁ ἄνθρωπος - (the) man. But this This translation is used, e.g., in the [[KJB|King James Bible]], the [[New American Standard Bible]] or the [[New International Version]]. This rendition would be is inconsistent with how the similar Greek phrase that replaces "of man" with "of peace" is better translated as "a peaceful person," "someone who promotes peace," or "a man of peace" <ref>The NASB translates the Greek word for "son" non-literally as "man", in order to convey the meaning of the phrase.</ref> in Luke 10:6, rather than as the wooden, literal phrase "a son of peace."<ref>"'''ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ'''" is translated as "'''the Son of God'''."</ref> (a translation used in the [[King James Bible]] and the [[English Standard Version]].) But in English the overly literal translation as "the Son of Man" is incoherent, and the phrase interferes with the clear logic of the important passage surrounding [[John 3:16]]. An analogous phrase, with a genitive that helps define an "ambiguous or metaphorical head noun," occurs at 2 Corinthians 5:5 ("Who has given to us the down payment of the Spirit" is better translated as " ... "the down payment which is the Spirit").<ref>http://ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/classify-genitive.htm - see "Epexigetical Genitive")</ref>