Difference between revisions of "Talk:Essay: Darwin's Law"

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(mentioning a possible issue with Free Will re: Denial of God. Also asking for help with Paul's wisdom.)
 
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It is mentioned  "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen,"
 
It is mentioned  "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen,"
  
This sounds contradictory to me.  The word "invisible" actually means *not* clearly seen, or even seen at all.  We know that the Bible isn't self-contradictory. What am I missing here?
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This sounds contradictory to me.  The word "invisible" actually means *not* clearly seen, or even seen at all.  We know that the Bible isn't self-contradictory. What am I missing here? {{unsigned|NoahEdelson}}
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:''Unless a man be born again, he cannot '''see''' the Kinggdom of God.'''
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So if I were to tell you that "see" or "seen" in this context means "understand", you couldn't understand anyway unless you were born again. [[User:RobSmith|RobS]]<sup>[[User talk:RobSmith|Free Kyle!]]</sup> 20:28, 24 May 2021 (EDT)

Revision as of 00:28, May 25, 2021

This is a very interesting topic. OP is right of course that anyone who has atheist views is completely denying the existence of God. I don't think it follows logically that they automatically know better, but there could be a mechanism that is poorly understood that leads to this condition. We might run into some problems with Free Will (I think) if we suggest that God can directly change our minds about things. God can *SHOW* us things, but if he changes our minds in a direct fashion- that would mean we don't have a choice to believe what we do. Without that agency, choice, or Free Will (whatever you want to call it) - it would mean we are essentially His sock puppets and couldn't be judged for believing what we believe or doing what we do. Maybe the denial of God and the knowledge of God are correlated but are without a causal link? I don't think I quite understand Paul in the quote there. For instance

It is mentioned "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen,"

This sounds contradictory to me. The word "invisible" actually means *not* clearly seen, or even seen at all. We know that the Bible isn't self-contradictory. What am I missing here? —The preceding unsigned comment was added by NoahEdelson (talk)

Unless a man be born again, he cannot see' the Kinggdom of God.

So if I were to tell you that "see" or "seen" in this context means "understand", you couldn't understand anyway unless you were born again. RobSFree Kyle! 20:28, 24 May 2021 (EDT)