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Talk:First Epistle of John (Translated) (view source)
Revision as of 04:11, October 22, 2023
, 04:11, October 22, 2023→Original text didn't include Comma Johanneum?: new section
:Absolutely there should be a footnote; in fact I'm pretty upset at SRFoster for removing it. We DON'T MODIFY THE KJV! I'll put it back immediately. [[User:JacobB|JacobB]] 16:05, 4 March 2010 (EST)
:Absolutely there should be a footnote; in fact I'm pretty upset at SRFoster for removing it. We DON'T MODIFY THE KJV! I'll put it back immediately. [[User:JacobB|JacobB]] 16:05, 4 March 2010 (EST)
== Original text didn't include Comma Johanneum? ==
Um, yeah, I don't think so. There are some who more or less claim Erasmus invented the clause, and yet it's found in the [https://studybible.info/Tyndale/1%20John%205 Tyndale Bible]. And it couldn't have been invented by a heretic after the second century, because the Vaudois Bible, dating back to 157 A.D., contained the Johannine Comma! According to Theodore Beza, the Waldensians finished translating their Bible in 157 A.D. after obtaining manuscripts from Antioch missionaries in the 120s.
Now yes, the full verse is absent from a ton of Greek manuscripts. Does this mean those Greek manuscripts thereby prove Comma Johannine doesn't belong? No, because the clause was [https://www.google.com/books/edition/Answers_to_Your_Bible_Version_Questions/vDrfOawsb4UC?hl=en&gbpv=1&dq=%22vaudois+bible%22+1+john+5:7&pg=PA113&printsec=frontcover&bshm=rimc/1 intentionally removed]—the Eastern church in antiquity faced the Sabellian heresy, which used Comma Johanneum to promulgate the bizarre claim that the Father suffered on the cross. Thus, the Greek church expediently denied the validity of 1 John 5:7–8 to undermine Sabellianism. —[[User:LT|<code><span style="background:#FF8181">'''LT'''</span></code>]] '''''[[User talk:LT|<sup>Rev. 22:13</sup>]]''''' Sunday, 00:11, October 22, 2023 (EDT)