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→Obvious Error: some details on ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ vs. ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου
--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 00:56, 22 June 2014 (EDT)
--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 00:56, 22 June 2014 (EDT)
(Andy, you wanted to link to [[Son of Man]], I suppose. --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 01:26, 22 June 2014 (EDT)
(Andy, you wanted to link to [[Son of Man]], I suppose.) --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 01:26, 22 June 2014 (EDT)
=== Elaboration ===
Verse John 6:53 reads in the original εἶπεν οὖν αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς Ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, ἐὰν μὴ φάγητε τὴν σάρκα τοῦ Υἱοῦ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου καὶ πίητε αὐτοῦ τὸ αἷμα, οὐκ ἔχετε ζωὴν ἐν ἑαυτοῖς. This includes the phrase ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου, literally ''the son of the man'', as υἱός, οῦ, ὁ means son (or possibly descendant), and ἄνθρωπος, ου, ὁ ''man, human, mankind''. While we may stretch the meaning of λόγος to include abstract concepts beside the literal ''word'', there is no way for ἄνθρωπος to imply the meaning of ''God''. Yet Jesus Christs uses this phrase many times in the New Testament to speak about himself. Theologically, this is an interest question - and an opener for many debates. But as a translation, the case is closed: Jesus Christ calls himself time and time again ''the son of man''.
How could we justify to translate this phrase as ''Son of God''?
*Jesus Christ could have misspoken, and he really wanted to say ''Son of God''
*John erred, he really wanted to write ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ
Both justifications are preposterous. Therefore, I will revert Andy's erroneous translation. --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 15:47, 22 June 2014 (EDT)