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→John 6:53: How to proceed?: answering Andy, repeating my questions.
::::August, a pedantic word-for-word approach to translation has several obvious flaws. I ask you again, what do you think the original meaning of Jesus's phrase was? Whatever that meaning was, "Son of Man" does not convey it in English.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 19:26, 29 June 2014 (EDT)
::::August, a pedantic word-for-word approach to translation has several obvious flaws. I ask you again, what do you think the original meaning of Jesus's phrase was? Whatever that meaning was, "Son of Man" does not convey it in English.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 19:26, 29 June 2014 (EDT)
:::::*I'm not for ''a pedantic word-for-word approach to translation''. But in any translation, it is the first step! First are grammar and words, then there is the meaning - not the other way around.
:::::*''Son of Man'', ''Menschensohn'', ''Filius Hominis'', these all stress that Jesus is Christ is human, without implying that He is ''only'' human. It is parallel to ''Son of God'', ''Gottessohn'', ''Filius Dei'', showing His duality: both phrases together show that He is God Who became Man. I think it is rather beautiful, simple, and full of meaning (on which a commentary can elaborate).
:::::*The translation has the advantage that it not only makes sense, but conveys the grammatical construction in a straightforward way, thereby allowing the reader to draw similar conclusions as an original Greek reader may have.
:::::*And now, Andy, I'd like you to address the points 1-4 above, especially point 3:
::::::3. '''"the Son, a human being" is still an invalid translation of ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου for which you have not provided any example of parallel phrases in Greek.'''
:::::--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 15:23, 30 June 2014 (EDT)
===ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου in the rest of the CBP===
===ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου in the rest of the CBP===