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::I'll knock it out. [[User:Ungtss|Ungtss]] 13:46, 7 October 2008 (EDT)
::I'll knock it out. [[User:Ungtss|Ungtss]] 13:46, 7 October 2008 (EDT)
:::To be fair, the Bible does seem to make a distinction between ''incidental'' contact with a menstruating woman (resulting in ritual uncleanliness, Leviticus 15:19-24) and ''sexual'' contact (as in Leviticus 20:18, Ezekiel 22:10). In Ezekiel, sexual contact with menstruating women is listed among God's justifications for destroying the house of Israel. Whether or not this applies to modern non-Jews is a separate issue.--[[User:Brossa|Brossa]] 14:55, 7 October 2008 (EDT)
:::To be fair, the Bible does seem to make a distinction between ''incidental'' contact with a menstruating woman (resulting in ritual uncleanliness, Leviticus 15:19-24) and ''sexual'' contact (as in Leviticus 20:18, Ezekiel 22:10). In Ezekiel, sexual contact with menstruating women is listed among God's justifications for destroying the house of Israel. Whether or not this applies to modern non-Jews is a separate issue.--[[User:Brossa|Brossa]] 14:55, 7 October 2008 (EDT)
==Contemporary Sensibility of Biblical Prohibition==
The examples given to justify the validity of the Biblical law are not good justifications for avoiding sex during menstruation. The Neuberger quote is based on 1910 medicine, and lumps concerns about venereal disease and leprosy in the same pronouncement regarding menstruation. The Ben-Noun quote is specifically addressing the development of chlamydial and gonococcal diseases. Neither of these presents a contemporary medical reason why sex during menstruation between a healthy married couple would be wrong, even if the Biblical prohibition says it is. This goes back to my question above - what makes this Biblical prohibition from the Old Testament is valid in all cases while others like Kosher dietary restrictions can be ignored by Christians? --[[User:DinsdaleP|DinsdaleP]] 20:08, 7 October 2008 (EDT)