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Talk:Luke 1-8 (Translated) (view source)

Revision as of 01:40, December 13, 2009

470 bytes added ,  01:40, December 13, 2009
→‎Translation: to the extent you think the KJV was 100% precise in conveying original intent in 1611 English (not all here would agree), then the substance should always be unchanged
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I have found that the only thing that has been changed are the words. Does anyone else find this? [[User:NP|NP]] 20:23, 12 December 2009 (EST)
 
I have found that the only thing that has been changed are the words. Does anyone else find this? [[User:NP|NP]] 20:23, 12 December 2009 (EST)
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:I'm sure of what the Bible means here, but I'm not sure what you mean!  I think you're saying that the substance is unchanged for this verse between the KJV and our work-in-progress.  I'd agree, and that is usually the case.  In fact, to the extent you think the KJV was 100% precise in conveying original intent in 1611 English (not all here would agree), then the substance should always be unchanged.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 20:40, 12 December 2009 (EST)
Aschlafly
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