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/* (Matthew 27:51) The New International Version starts the verse with At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn.., but this at that moment seems to be a translation of the leading καὶ (in fac
: At one point someone asked you ''what the physical mechanism would be if there were a delay''. Could you answer that question?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 11:42, 30 April 2011 (EDT)
: At one point someone asked you ''what the physical mechanism would be if there were a delay''. Could you answer that question?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 11:42, 30 April 2011 (EDT)
::*''August, translations don't simply erase words.'' They most certainly do! Have a look at [http://alkitab.sabda.org/passage.php?passage=Mat%2026:47-56&tab=alt no. 9] of your google-search for ''ἰδού'' and ''at this moment'': ''' "The Greek word ἰδού (idou) at the beginning of this statement has not been translated."''' It's a very common procedure, as there are many words in Greek texts which feel superfluous to us. Partly, they make up for the missing punctuation: where the Greeks used ἰδού, we would perhaps insert just an exclamation mark...
::*''What the [[KJV]] translates as "behold" can properly be translated as "at that moment" in modern English, depending on context.'' You keep repeating this conviction of yours. But besides from the entertaining Google search above (which I've shown to be absolutely unconvincing: please read the section above!), '''you have not given a single scholarly source which shows that there is any translator who shares your conviction.'''
::*''And the context is crystal clear that the two events happened at the same time ... otherwise one would expect some description of a delay.'' A delay of a couple minutes could not have been spotted by the parties involved (i.e., the Roman nobleman and his servants)! So how could there be a description?
::*''At one point someone asked you ''what the physical mechanism would be if there were a delay''. Could you answer that question?'' You seem to refer to BrandB's questions above, i.e.,
:::::August, can you propose an alternative explanation for how the healing power of Jesus was transferred? One that is more likely than action at a distance? I don't understand how or why His power would necessarily need to "travel", per se. It may be precision not in the text itself, but one that is the most logical.
:::No, I don't know whether the Lord chose to act instantaneously, or whether there was a (short) delay. And I think that such a question should be answered ''after'' translating the verse, as we don't want to fit the translation to our explanations or expectations!
::[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 11:36, 2 May 2011 (EDT)