Talk:Liberal logic

that new laws reducing the gun ownership rate by 0.1% and a subsequent election of a left wing government are not linked

What on earth is this tripe supposed to mean? If gun ownership had not been reduced by 0.1% a left wing government (where? how?) would not have been elected? How? By the 0.1% blockading the polling stations with their weaponry? Or is some other 'reason' bubbling away in the peculiar mind of whoever came up with such an argument? Sawneybeane 16:20, 15 February 2008 (EST)

It's obvious. -- Ferret _{Nice old chat} 17:13, 15 February 2008 (EST)

"...the largely defensive weapon of gun..." I liked that actually! Feebasfactor 16:55, 15 February 2008 (EST)

"except the conservative truth"

I wonder if anyone would agree that reverting my edit from reading "conservative views" to reading "conservative truth," and thereby implying that "conservatism = THE TRUTH" can be interpreted in light of items 3, 4, 7, 11, 12, and 19 of the extremism article.Rodney 17:34, 16 February 2008 (EST)

I'd say that article probably needs to be fixed for "liberal bias" anyway. Feebasfactor 18:42, 16 February 2008 (EST)

ROFLMAO! Rodney 18:43, 16 February 2008 (EST)

Removed "poor"

A correlation absolutely can be disproved by a good counterexample. (Correlations are, by themselves, rather weak arguments anyway.) It's only poor counterexamples that could be considered an illogical refutation of a correlation. HelpJazz 01:01, 18 February 2008 (EST)