| | Jesus' curing of the beggar blind from birth was followed by Jesus asking him, "Do you believe in the Son of Man?" He responded, "Who is he, sir, that I may believe in him?" Jesus replied, "You have seen him, the one speaking with you is he." The formerly blind man responded, "I do believe, Lord," and he worshiped Him.<ref>[http://www.usccb.org/bible/readings/032617.cfm]</ref> The translation "Son of Man" in English in that passage fails to capture the implication of "Son of God," which was obviously meant.<ref>The blind beggar would not have understood "Son of Man" to be a scriptural reference to a similar term referenced only once in the [[Book of Daniel]].</ref> | | Jesus' curing of the beggar blind from birth was followed by Jesus asking him, "Do you believe in the Son of Man?" He responded, "Who is he, sir, that I may believe in him?" Jesus replied, "You have seen him, the one speaking with you is he." The formerly blind man responded, "I do believe, Lord," and he worshiped Him.<ref>[http://www.usccb.org/bible/readings/032617.cfm]</ref> The translation "Son of Man" in English in that passage fails to capture the implication of "Son of God," which was obviously meant.<ref>The blind beggar would not have understood "Son of Man" to be a scriptural reference to a similar term referenced only once in the [[Book of Daniel]].</ref> |
| − | In [[Matthew 20-28 (Translated)#26:64|Matthew 26:64]], [[Jesus]] says something so blasphemous that it caused the High Priest to demand his execution. It was either "Hereafter you will see 'the Son of man, sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven'" or "Hereafter you will see '''the'' Son, a man, sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.'" The latter rendition is clearly blasphemous while the former is not. | + | In [[Matthew 20-28 (Translated)#26:64|Matthew 26:64]], [[Jesus]] says something so blasphemous that it caused the High Priest to demand his execution. It was either "Hereafter you will see 'the Son of man, sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven'" or "Hereafter you will see '''the'' Son ''as'' man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.'" The latter rendition is clearly blasphemous while the former is not. |
| | The Greek version of how Jesus described himself is the awkward phrase "'''ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου'''," which can be translated as "'''the Son, a human being'''" or, more simply, "'''the Son as Man'''."<ref>Literally, a word-for-word translation is "the son of the man" - [https://scholarsarchive.byu.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?referer=https://www.bing.com/&httpsredir=1&article=1236&context=studiaantiqua - Haley Wilson, "A SURVEY OF THE “SON OF MAN” FROM DANIEL TO JESUS, PART 1," p. 1]</ref> A full, wordy translation of the Greek would be "The Son, with the character of man." The Greek is likely a translation of an Aramaic phrase "bar enosha," which has the connotation of "a human."<ref>https://www.biblegateway.com/blog/2011/08/son-of-man-or-human-one-tough-translation-questions-raised-by-the-common-english-bible/</ref> The Greek wording implies the divinity of Jesus in a non-blasphemous manner, without Jesus expressly claiming to be God. [[Faith]] is then required to accept the obvious implication that Jesus was divine, and his opponents thereby had a difficult time catching him in the crime of blasphemy during his ministry.<ref>Other possible translations are less consistent with the Greek, and would have constituted the crime of blasphemy: "God as a man," "Son of Man from God," "God became man," "God descended as man," or "Christ, Son of [[God]]."</ref> | | The Greek version of how Jesus described himself is the awkward phrase "'''ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου'''," which can be translated as "'''the Son, a human being'''" or, more simply, "'''the Son as Man'''."<ref>Literally, a word-for-word translation is "the son of the man" - [https://scholarsarchive.byu.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?referer=https://www.bing.com/&httpsredir=1&article=1236&context=studiaantiqua - Haley Wilson, "A SURVEY OF THE “SON OF MAN” FROM DANIEL TO JESUS, PART 1," p. 1]</ref> A full, wordy translation of the Greek would be "The Son, with the character of man." The Greek is likely a translation of an Aramaic phrase "bar enosha," which has the connotation of "a human."<ref>https://www.biblegateway.com/blog/2011/08/son-of-man-or-human-one-tough-translation-questions-raised-by-the-common-english-bible/</ref> The Greek wording implies the divinity of Jesus in a non-blasphemous manner, without Jesus expressly claiming to be God. [[Faith]] is then required to accept the obvious implication that Jesus was divine, and his opponents thereby had a difficult time catching him in the crime of blasphemy during his ministry.<ref>Other possible translations are less consistent with the Greek, and would have constituted the crime of blasphemy: "God as a man," "Son of Man from God," "God became man," "God descended as man," or "Christ, Son of [[God]]."</ref> |