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Difference between revisions of "Talk:Biblical scientific foreknowledge"

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I wanted to fix the formatting here, but it has already been locked.  So I guess maybe you could do it, Conservative?  I was going to change the final sentence from being a single huge link, to only having one word linked, or possibly made a reference.--[[user:TomMoore|<font color="#000066" >Tom Moore</font>]]<sup>[[User talk:TomMoore|fiat justitia ruat coelum]]</sup> 20:21, 25 May 2008 (EDT)
 
:::Thanks but I prefer it be the way it is as the [[CreationWiki]] article is the best article on the internet on the subject in my estimation. [[User:Conservative|Conservative]] 20:24, 25 May 2008 (EDT)
 
:::: Is that the reason for the redundant link? [[User:Wandering|Wandering]] 20:34, 25 May 2008 (EDT)
 
  
==Counter-argument==
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[[Talk:Biblical_scientific_foreknowledge/Archive1|Archive 1]]
RE: The bible prohibits homosexuality because of diseases.  One, if God did not want homosexuality, then it seems more probable that the diseases would be the result of His dislike, rather than vice versa.  More likely reasons for why God would prohibit homosexuality would be either, one, that He designed men and women to copulate together, therefore to copulate in an unintended way is abhorrent, or two, two men who are homosexual and are not married are two less people who could have contributed to increasing the overall size of the population of the Ancient Hebrews, at a time where their survival was a daily worry, and a large population would have helped many of their problems (that was a run-on sentence, and I do apologize).  Either way, it seems unlikely that the ban on homosexuality is because of the diseases associated with it.  [[User:ZTak|ZTak]] 16:58, 26 May 2008 (EDT)
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== One problem ==
  
There is much more that needs to be discussed:
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This is a wonderful article, with many in sites that could drive atheists to the brink of despair. The one issue is "...by 2011 obesity was far more prevalent and harmful than hunger. " I realize that this is an America-centric wiki, but if you look at world numbers, 500 000 000 obese, 925 000 000 without adequate nutrition. Just found this a bit of a slap in the face
  
The paragraph about blood-letting
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:I think you're missing a key word in your comment. I also think there are more than 500 million obese people in the world.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:51, 20 February 2012 (EST)
is completely off-topic. The article is about providing scientific knowledge, that was already in the bible long before scientists found them. This whole paragraph has nothing to do with it. It just says, that Pilate was surprised about the quick death of Jesus but he himself had no explanation for it. So the fact that the loss of blood hastens death was not known by the author or at least he deemed it too insignificant to mention it.
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Maximum human height:
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::http://www.who.int/mediacentre/factsheets/fs311/en/ These are the 2008 obesity statistics. As for the missing key word, I could not find it, but if you could point out a flaw in my argument, I would be quite happy [[User:Sy20|Sy20]] 12:02, 21 February 2012 (EST)
Goliaths height is still absurd considering he was supposed to be some kind of warrior. The reason Robert Wadlow grew that big, was because of a pituitary adenoma. And he required leg splints for walking, because of his weakened bones. Someone like this would be utterly unqualified to be the lead fighter of an army.
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:''Robert Wadlow is cited because of his height and the symptoms related to his height, not because of his weakened legs.  Goliath is written in the Bible as having one of those symptoms, but as to his legs he was not Wadlow, nor was he the exact same as any other man who had that condition.  Part of his armor was a pair of bronze grieves strapped to his legs; if necessary, they would have doubled as braces...provided he had weakened legs.''
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::Alright, now I get it.
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Feasibility of Abiogenesis:
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==Grand Unified Theory... what!?==
No, abiogenesis is not the process of forming life from nothing. It's the theory of forming life from simple organic molecules.
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"''But Genesis explains that the creation of light was done in a separate, initial creation, free of darkness or entropy, and thus incapable of unification with matter.''" So did God specifically separate visible light out from the rest of the EM spectrum, or did He create x-rays, gamma rays, radio waves, electricity and magnetism at the same time? Seems to me if light was a separate creation it wouldn't rest in the middle of the current electromagnetic spectrum, was it shoehorned in later? I'm not sure what to make of what I'm reading here. Further explanation is required. --[[User:JoshuaB|JoshuaB]] 20:38, 25 February 2012 (EST)
Also the sentence "God creates life from nothing" is far from "depicting clearly". It just gives rise to many more questions like "How did God create that life?"
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:Like I said below, both light and (say) electrons behave sometimes like waves, and sometimes like particles. In the standard formalism people use, one takes the fields to fundamental for everything: photons, gluons, quarks, electrons, and so on. (This is called quantum field theory, for obvious reasons.) And like Joshua said, is it specifically the visible spectrum, or all EM radiation? Because it's clear that there is nothing special about the visible spectrum. And GUT's refer to the unification of the strong force with the electroweak force. Not light with matter. [[User:AndyFrankinson|AndyFrankinson]] 10:18, 18 March 2012 (EDT)
:''You're changing the very meaning of the word here, when it was used for generations to describe life spontaneously arising from non-life[http://www.trueorigin.org/abio.asp].  As to your assumption about God, the Bible is very clear on the act of Creation: He spoke it into existence. If I was to say to the hat "make a rabbit come out" and the rabbit did just that, then I would have spoke it into existence; but since I am not God, I cannot create something from nothing.''
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::Ok, but "non-life" is still far from being just "nothing" as mentioned in the article. It seemed to me like you are mixing the Big Bang theory with abiogenesis, which are completely different things. So "He spoke it into existence." And that doesn't give rise to question of what it is, that lets God do that, or what is behind the ability of "speaking something into existence"? For you this is just supernatural and therefore not comprehensible by our natural means and that's it? I'm sorry, if that sounds like something from a douche. I apologize if it happens to be that questions like those are considered inappropriate.
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::This article: "Biblical scientific foreknowledge" has so many strange ideas in it that it makes me wonder if it's written to deliberately make conservatives look stupid! Abiogenesis has never been observed by a single scientist and is therefore not scientific - and Conservapedia's own MAIN PAGE says exactly that (May 13, 2011)!  Of course God created life from nothing but when we say that "science" has now caught up with the Bible when the ONLY (pseudo)scientific theory (evolution) that promotes Abiogenesis is designed specifically to "prove" the Bible wrong - we're contradicting ourselves.  I suggest that Abiogenesis be deleted from this article.
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Earth free floating in space:
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==Section or new article on future knowledge==
Yes, it's clearly in the bible that "god hangs the earth on nothing". However, it is not entirely clear, whether the author of that text really meant with "nothing" the vacuum. I think that in ancient times people referred even to air as being "nothing". After all it was Otto von Guericke in 1654 who proofed with his Experiment, the "Magdeburger hemispheres", the existence of our atmosphere.
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:''And the writers of the Bible should have been experimenting instead of writing?''
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::I didn't suggest that, I just meant that we cannot know if he, the writer, meant with "nothing" really nothing (vacuum) or just air. Vacuum is a very abstract thing. It's not occurring naturally and its existence is therefor not obvious. I just mentioned the "Magdeburger hemispheres" experiment to make it clear that in the past there were times, when "nothing" and "air" were synonymous. And if the author thought that God hung the earth into air (instead of really nothing/vacuum), then this paragraph about the earth floating in space is also off-topic, has got nothing to do with scientific foreknowledge and should be removed. I mean, surely this site is not being edited by amateurs isn't it?
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Meteorites:
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I was thinking it would be a good idea to write an article, or perhaps a subsection to this article, that details knowledge or predictions in the bible that are not yet known to science. What do you think? --[[User:JeremyK|JeremyK]] 12:46, 1 March 2012 (EST)
This is completely out of context. Nowhere is there mentioned that those "great mountains burning with fire" are basically nothing more than the shooting stars that one can see at night, only bigger. Furthermore it's not fire that lights meteorites but black body radiation from frictional heat with the atmosphere.
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:''And to an earth-bound mortal without the benefit of schooling, meteorites would look exactly like those "great mountains burning with fire."''
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::Ok, I give you that. But if you see it that way, then this is unscientific. It also hasn't got anything to do with scientific foreknowledge then. It's just a statement, that someone observed a meteorite and therefor is off-topic in this article.
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Stellar proper movement:
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:That's a great idea!  Please start a subsection or, perhaps better, a new entry as you suggested.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 13:06, 1 March 2012 (EST)
I don't understand this. Not a single sane religious person would have had the guts to tell from this, that the stars that make up Orion's belt are moving apart from each other before the proper observations were made. The phrase "Among those challenges, two are remarkable:" sounds like there are thousands of challenges mentioned but in only two cases Job was lucky and guessed right. How can we hope from this to gain knowledge just from reading the bible?
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:''Try reading the Bible as an historical record concerning the salvation of man from sin through Jesus Christ instead.''
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::But then, what is that scientific knowledge from the bible good for? You guys are using this to show, that the people's minds of those who wrote the bible were many centuries ahead of their time, right? But the thing is, you are always interpreting the bible that way, after science has caught up. Job named some challenges that really no man can do, I get this point. But I think it's only coincidence, that these actions are happening in the way Job guessed them. I don't think that Job himself knew, that Orion's belt is really almost literally "unfolding". And therefore this is again off-topic and has nothing to do with scientific foreknowledge. And if in some miraculous way Job really did know that Orion's belt is unfolding, then shouldn't all those other challenges, not only those two in particular, also be true? You see, I have no doubts about Job's genius but I believe, that if he did not just randomly guess those challenges, that he would not be deceitfully mixing true facts in between utter nonsense.
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::''tldr:'' There are several ways now on how to proceed: 1.) Acknowledging that this paragraph has got nothing to do with scientific foreknowledge, because Job only guessed them and had no evidence for them. 2.) Leaving the paragraph as it is, but believing in Jobs sincerity and also declaring all those other challenges as scientific foreknowledge. 3.) Acknowledging that Job tried to deceive us, because he mixed in true facts with nonsense.
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::: Is this in reference to Job 9:9? Because none of the translations  the I have read on biblegateway.com make any reference to stars moving at all.
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Existence of the Jet Stream:
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::Excellent! I have to finish up a research paper this week so I'll be very busy, but I'll try and draw up a draft for next weekend.--[[User:JeremyK|JeremyK]] 08:50, 4 March 2012 (EST)
The Jet Stream goes from west to east by the way.
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Existence of dinosaurs:
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:::I had a look at the page just now and I can't find the section on future knowledge. Am I missing it or should I add one? [[User:BarrySM|BarrySM]] 18:04, 22 February 2014 (EST)
How can we know that from the bible? The only things the bible tells us about the behemoth are (Job 40:15-24):
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- that "He eats grass like an ox."
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- "He moves his tail like a cedar" whatever that is supposed to mean
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- "His bones are like beams of bronze, His ribs like bars of iron."
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Why could that NOT be an elephant or an hippopotamus. This description is way to vague.
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:''And the description is too vague to be an elephant or a hippo.  Moses wrote the first five books of the Bible as well as Job; he was educated in the highest court of Egypt; he has seen both elephants and hippos, and his description of the behemoth just doesn't match either animal.  Neither has a tail that looks like a cedar, and the branches of cedar trees are pretty big.''
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::Okay, if you mean that Job would have had a word for elephant or hippopotamus at hand instead of "behemoth" that we would recognize as such, then I can agree with you.
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Lions' killing methods:
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::::Well I went ahead and did it. Hope everyone likes it. [[User:BarrySM|BarrySM]] 09:33, 24 February 2014 (EST)
Citation needed. The german wikipedia says that lions bite the necks of small animals and clamp the trachea of bigger animals with their jaws.
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:''The German Wikipedia is subject to editing by amateurs.''
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::Okay, but the content of this paragraph is still in need of a citation, because we don't really want anyone to think that conservapedia is subject to editing by amateurs, don't we. I just can't believe this particular paragraph without an objective source.
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Engineering examples:
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== GUT ==
Whoever put this in, has he read those biblical verses that foretell those engineering examples? I just read Revelation 9:1-11 in hope to read something about submarines. You should also do that and think about it. Nevertheless, if something like this is suggested, you should directly provide said biblical verses.
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:''The writer of Revelation was speaking in the terms he knew; he saw a vision of warfare in the future, for example, and he wrote "chariots"; he didn't know the words "tank" or "jeep" or "submarine" or "MiG 25".''
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::It is claimed that these verses are a foretelling of submarines. I just don't buy it by reading the mentioned biblical verses. Why would the author use a comparison with locusts and not something bigger, without wings, something that would be a better resemblance to a submarine. Why did he call them even locusts and not "some strange things like locusts". If I would assume that this passage really is a foretelling of submarines, then I would come to the conclusion that the author is trying do deceive me by calling his visions really locusts. And even if I'm completely wrong about this (which could be entirely true), because I'm not smart enough to see the submarines in that passage, you should still provide the verses directly inside this article, that suggest the foretelling of those engineering examples.
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Again, it a case of someone clutching at straws, trying to make contradictions where none exist. [[User:Karajou|Karajou]] 12:57, 19 August 2010 (EDT)
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You state that "Billions of dollars and millions of hours have been wasted by atheists in futile pursuit of a "grand unified theory" for physics. But Genesis explains that the creation of light was done in a separate, initial creation, free of darkness or entropy, and thus incapable of unification with matter." I had a laugh at this: electromagnetism/light ''was'' unified with another force (the weak force) around 40 years ago...
:I do not try to make contradictions. I'm generally trying to point out that some of the things mentioned here are off-topic or are lacking citations.
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<br>
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And don't tell me you are going to start a "counterexamples to the electroweak theory" page... [[User:AndyFrankinson|AndyFrankinson]] 19:54, 1 March 2012 (EST)
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:Maybe you'll get a response. As you can see, I made similar statements a few sections above you. --[[User:JoshuaB|JoshuaB]] 19:59, 1 March 2012 (EST)
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::Yeah, I noticed that right after I posted mine. Sorry! [[User:AndyFrankinson|AndyFrankinson]] 20:47, 1 March 2012 (EST)
  
== Examples? ==
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:::Yeah, and sometimes light acts like particles (e.g., the [[photoelectric effect]]).  But a few similarities between light and matter do not negate the fundamental differences.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 22:36, 2 March 2012 (EST)
  
Where are the examples of the Christian Bible detailing scientific knowledge? Is the prohibition of homosexuality the lone example? {{unsigned|Zeitgeisted}}
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::::And what are the fundamental differences? Everything sometimes acts like particles, and sometimes like waves. Correct me if I'm wrong, but isn't the point of a GUT to unite the electroweak theory with the theory of the strong force (quantum chromodynamics)? [[User:AndyFrankinson|AndyFrankinson]] 19:43, 6 March 2012 (EST)
  
Yeah, you're forgetting how many times it was wrong, like how it said that the earth was flat, that the sun went around the earth, and that the moon was unreachable, and that you could make a tower to physically reach heaven, just to name a few.
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:::::Semantic debates are not very interesting.  The basic point is clear: light (the entire spectrum) is fundamentally different from matter as illustrated by their creation on different days.  Efforts to unify them are a waste of time and money.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 10:54, 18 March 2012 (EDT)
--[[User:JackSmith|JackSmith]] 16:00, 24 June 2008 (EDT)
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It is not simply the bible that is full of inspired scientific foresight.  Divinely inspired authors such as Jules Verne or scientists such as Konstantin Tsiolkovsky saw technological glimpses centuries ahead of their time.  Given the abundance of science fiction and scientific papers, one cannot help but see God's hand in the revelation of technological advances.  God's ability to reveal technological glimpses of the future is only distantly rivaled by Satan's ability to pervert God's teachings with concepts like homosexuality, atheism, and evolution, which are clearly not divinely inspired concepts.
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::::::So the point you are making is: light and matter are different, and so light cannot be on equal footing with (say) electrons, right? [[User:AndyFrankinson|AndyFrankinson]] 13:53, 18 March 2012 (EDT)
Other great scientists, like Albert Einstein, were clearly divinely inspired, seeing details of the universe that defied intuition of other scientists of his day, and could not have been known without the direct intervention of god.  The mathematical techniques that Einstein built upon were developed by God for centuries under the guise of Lorentz, Gauss, Riemann, and others.  The fact that the Bible did not specifically foresee the development of the computer revolution, the standard model of particle physics, the automobile, airplanes, or high oil prices is simply a function of its limited text, with verbosity suppressed in order to provide a more accessible text for mankind.
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This page is a joke right.  It includes one lone example that itself is somewhat dodgy.  Homosexual people on average have a greater number of STI's than the heterosexual population, but surely this is more because during the 80's it was assumed that homosexual men didn't need to use condoms, thus increasing the spread of disease.
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:::::::They have the same [[Creator]], so if one searches hard enough then a few similarities can be found, but fundamentally they were created on different days for different purposes, and are very different.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 14:53, 18 March 2012 (EDT)
We also make the point at this time that statistical information of this nature isn't actually scientific knowledge.  If the bible said "God created light, such that it would always travel at the same speed" that would be impressive.  This is not.
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==Atheism==
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::::::::And what are the differences? In the formalism one uses in particle physics, both the photons and the electrons are treated with the field as fundamental--the particles are merely quanta of the excited energy spectrum. [[User:AndyFrankinson|AndyFrankinson]] 20:00, 18 March 2012 (EDT)
  
What does that have to do with bible scientific foreknowledge? I assume it's a mistake and I'll be removing it shortly. [[User:Wandering|Wandering]] 00:04, 3 August 2008 (EDT)
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:::::::::If there were no differences, then a unified theory would exist.  But it does not.  Mass exerts a gravitational force that is fundamentally different from electromagnetism.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 22:33, 20 March 2012 (EDT)
:I was ''going'' to remove it, since it's quite inappropriate, but I failed to notice that the article has been locked, for no apparent reason except that it falls under Conservative's atheism pet project. [[User:Wandering|Wandering]] 23:00, 6 August 2008 (EDT)
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==A Thought==
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::::::::::Can light be unified with any other force? Like the nuclear forces? [[User:AndyFrankinson|AndyFrankinson]] 14:46, 21 March 2012 (EDT)
  
I won't offer you a deep philosohpical argument on why I feel that this article does more harm to the Christian cause than it does good, I will merely state what affect it had for me, browsing this website. When I found this page I was exploring the entries on atheism, with interest on why there was such a concentration on communism, as if to imply by analogy that the tens of millions of innocent deaths from Communist regimes have a bad influence on atheist, and I found this page. The problem is merely it smacks of desparation, or clutching at straws. {{unsigned|Entheogenicorder}}
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:::::::::::I also think you're confusing inertial mass with gravitational mass.... [[User:AndyFrankinson|AndyFrankinson]] 20:03, 2 April 2012 (EDT)
  
:Surely you mean "desperation", not "desparation". ;-) [[User:PhyllisS|PhyllisS]] 21:44, 6 July 2010 (EDT)
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== Last shall be first, and the first shall be last ==
  
::This article definitely does more harm to the Christian/Conservative cause than it does good.  There were certain things I expected to be present in it (such as the reason God told the Israelites to circumcise on the 8th day being that vitamin K [blood clotting vitamin] is not present until the 8th day - this was discovered in the 1930s) but I was so distracted by paragraphs which seem to belong in a Star Trek forum (Wave-Particle Duality, Quantum tunneling and the Banach-Tarski Paradox to name a few) that I've begun (as many others seem to have tried and sadly failed) to ask to have such laughable claptrap removed.  I thought a liberal had vandalized the article until I began reading the talk page and discovered to my shock that this hogwash is defended by certain Conservapedians all the way to the top!
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How is this statement hinting to set-theory? Could this explained? And did it hint the LIFO principle of queuing theory? For me this seems to be quite a stretch. [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 10:04, 17 June 2012 (EDT)
  
::We are not on the Starship Enterprise.  This article needs desperate editing with a chainsaw.
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Yes, could someone offer some explanation. [[User:Richardm|Richardm]] ([[User talk:Richardm|talk]]) 08:56, 23 September 2016 (EDT)
  
::As respectfully as I can manage and with kindest regards [[User:Spotsbunch|Spotsbunch]] 20:41, 14 May 2011 (EDT)
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There is no credible argument that this has anything to do with set theory, and its inclusion simply weakens the credibility of the article and the encyclopaedia. I'm deleting this example. [[User:Erniecohen|Erniecohen]] ([[User talk:Erniecohen|talk]]) 22:03, 13 November 2016 (EST)
  
== Not until it's done ==
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:I would like to hear an argument in support of this, but before someone does, it should not be deleted. --[[User:1990&#39;sguy|1990&#39;sguy]] ([[User talk:1990&#39;sguy|talk]]) 22:13, 13 November 2016 (EST)
  
I like where this article is going, but for the moment is is terribly unfinished and perhaps shouldn't be present quite yet?  I'm currently working on a degree in Christian Theology so I'd be glad to help, and can offer a few examples, but we would really need a trained eye to comb through the Bible for this sort of thing. May I suggest going through the Old Law and deducting the practical reasons those laws existed?  An example, just off the top of my head, would be the prohibition of eating pork due to the dangers in eating improperly cooked pork. Another example is that the curse given to Adam in Genesis, "remember that you are dust and to dust you shall return", coupled with how Man was formed, could be taken as an early description of the carbon cycle.  
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::I deleted it (before the deletion was reverted) because the original objection to it is over 3 years old, with no responses in favor of keeping it. How long are we supposed to wait before deleting such nonsense? Absurd entries like this just make the page into a joke. I would not be surprised if some of these examples were put in by people trying to do just that. [[User:Erniecohen|Erniecohen]] ([[User talk:Erniecohen|talk]]) 22:26, 13 November 2016 (EST)
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:::Thanks for deleting it. There is no need to put in entries which are not clear examples.[[User:Conservative|Conservative]] ([[User talk:Conservative|talk]]) 23:50, 13 November 2016 (EST)
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::::My question for [[User:1990&#39;sguy|1990&#39;sguy]] is when is it okay to actually delete it. [[User:Erniecohen|Erniecohen]] ([[User talk:Erniecohen|talk]]) 13:40, 14 November 2016 (EST)
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:::::An editor whom I trust has stated that the article is better without it, so I won't object you removing it. --[[User:1990&#39;sguy|1990&#39;sguy]] ([[User talk:1990&#39;sguy|talk]]) 21:28, 14 November 2016 (EST)
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::::::I deleted it (FILO :-) ) - after four and a half year... Success of sorts... --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 07:29, 20 November 2016 (EST)
  
Secondly, it may be prudent to keep a keen focus on the theological and historical context of each reference where appropriate.  I noticed someone mention earlier "building a tower to Heaven", obviously missing that this was said of those building the tower, not God.  This misunderstanding of the Tower of Babel story is a great example of what I mean here: we need people that realize that the tower was destroyed as its purpose was as a landmark for man to stay all together, violating God's command for man to "spread to all the corners of the earth."  It had nothing to do with their possibly reaching Heaven.  When looking for examples, we need to be wary of making mistakes such as that.  Sorry for all the paraphrasing :-P
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== Pi to one significant figure ==
  
Forgive me if I didn't sign or post this properly, as I'm new to all this. [[User:Rev|Rev]] 16:47, 28 June 2009 (EDT)
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I removed the comment about pi to one significant figure as the verses deal with 10 * pi.  I know that 31 to one sig fig is still 30, but the verses are in the order of magnitude 1, not 10, so it would be nonsensical to round 31 to 30. [[User:WilcoxD|WilcoxD]] 00:54, 20 August 2012 (EDT)
  
== Creation Ministries International and scientific foreknowledge ==
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''Can I suggest that you remove the reference to decimal measurement, this is irrelevant to the argument given that pi can be expressed as a fraction.''--[[User:Matthewhammond|Matthewhammond]] 18:28, 25 July 2013 (EDT)
  
I'm a little bit uncomfortable with the claim that CMI supports the idea of scientific foreknowledge, given that they include it on their list of "doubtful" argumentsWhile they don't dismiss it out of hand, they certainly don't seem to embrace the concept, either:
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==  ... out of no extra material ==
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One would think that loafs and fishes are measurable ("''material''") and therefore, that Banach-Tarski isn't applicable... --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 16:08, 12 September 2012 (EDT)
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:One would think that if Jesus' extraordinary doings were explainable by scientific means that said doings aren't actually miracles but merely a corollary of Clarke's third law? This, in turn ''could be'' used in a denial of Our Savior's deity. [[User:JuanMotame|JuanMotame]] 16:50, 12 September 2012 (EDT)
  
'':There is amazing modern scientific insight in the Bible.’ We should interpret the Bible as the author originally intended, and as the intended readership would have understood it. Therefore we should be cautious in reading modern science into passages where the readers would not have seen it. This applies especially to poetic books like Job and Psalms. For example, Job’s readers would not have understood Job 38:31 to be teaching anything about gravitational potential energy of Orion and Pleiades. Rather, the original readers would have seen it as a poetic illustration of God’s might, i.e. that God, unlike Job, could create the Pleiades in a tightly-knit cluster which is what it looks like; while God created Orion as a well spread out constellation, again something well beyond Job’s ability. Similarly, Job 38:14 is not  advanced scientific insight into the Earth’s rotation, because the earth is not being compared to the turning seal but to the clay turning from one shape into another under the seal.
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:Replying to August, I find his objection to be nitpicky. The analogy with Banach-Tarski is a strong one.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:56, 14 September 2012 (EDT)
''
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(Creation Ministries International, "What Arguments are Doubtful, Hence Inadvisable to Use?")
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::''Nitpicky''? I start to see this as a compliment...
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::Banach-Tarsky relies on the [[Axiom of Choice]] to choose two sets from a ball which are not measurable: there is no way to put a weight to those two sets in any sensible way - thus no material can be chopped up this way. [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 02:04, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
--[[User:Benp|Benp]] 12:55, 27 November 2009 (EST)
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== Zero ==
::::Creation Ministries International believes in the judicious use of biblical scientific foreknowledge claims and here is an example: http://creation.com/modern-medicine  I agree with them that you have to be judicious and use sound exegesis. For the most part, except for a statement they made concerning the Mosaic law, the [http://creationwiki.org/Bible_scientific_foreknowledge CreationWiki article on Bible scientific foreknowledge] is very good and very comprehensive. With a few alterations, I would have liked to copy the CreationWiki article over to Conservapedia, but the fairly restrictive GNU license prevented that. Sometimes people get overzealous in making Bible scientific foreknowledge claims and that is the reason why I have not edited the article in a long time as I decided a while back that sooner or later I was going to butt heads with another editor or editors and I decided that I wanted to spend my time addressing other priorities instead. [[User:Conservative|conservative]] 14:25, 19 August 2010 (EDT)
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== Beginning of the universe ==
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I couldn't find any reference to zero in the Bible in the sense of a [[place-value notation]]. Obviously there are many mentions of nothingness, but that is a different topic - and you'll find similar occurrences in virtually every piece of literature. [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 06:03, 14 September 2012 (EDT)
  
While the Big Bang theory may be more in line with Genesis than a steady-state theory, most Biblican literalists would argue the Big Bang theory is false.  Since it's false, Genesis saying something ''kind of'' like it isn't really scientific foreknowledge, and I feel this part should be removed.  Thoughts, anybody? [[User:JacobB|JacobB]] 14:59, 8 February 2010 (EST)
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:Aschlafly, by your standard the [[Iliad]] contains ''hundreds of references to the concept of zero throughout'':  
  
==  Eyesight ==
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::θαρσήσας μάλα εἰπὲ θεοπρόπιον ὅ τι οἶσθα:
 +
::οὐ μὰ γὰρ Ἀπόλλωνα Διῒ φίλον, ᾧ τε σὺ Κάλχαν
 +
::εὐχόμενος Δαναοῖσι θεοπροπίας ἀναφαίνεις,
 +
::οὔ τις ἐμεῦ ζῶντος καὶ ἐπὶ χθονὶ δερκομένοιο
 +
::σοὶ κοίλῃς παρὰ νηυσί βαρείας χεῖρας ἐποίσει
 +
::συμπάντων Δαναῶν, οὐδ᾽ ἢν Ἀγαμέμνονα εἴπῃς,
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::ὃς νῦν πολλὸν ἄριστος Ἀχαιῶν εὔχεται εἶναι.
  
I just read the part about eye sight and was trying to find out more information about this and am rather curious. Is there any source for this or anyone know about what what medical techniques it is referring to in the article or even the doctor that confirmed this? Thank you in advance  [[User:Johnfranklin|Johnfranklin]] 19:42, 10 June 2010 (EDT)
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:Do you see how [[Achilles]] refers to zero Greeks? Does this mean that [[Homer]] foresaw our modern decimal system? That is absurd. Until you can show at least ''one'' verse in the Bible where there is a reference to zero in the sense of a [[place-value notation]], I'll remove this topic. [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 01:59, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
:Your question is a good oneThis NPR story describes superficially one woman's experience in having her sight restored. [http://www.npr.org/templates/story/story.php?storyId=112933586] It doesn't go into as much detail as the biblical account so more citations would be welcome.  I'll continue to look as well.
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::In my opinion it is also incorrect to say that western mathematicians had no concept of zero, it is just that it is not necessary in an additive number system like roman numeralsI forget the exact place, but the Venerable Bede (who lived quite early in the middle ages) uses the word 'nulla'(or something to that effect, my Latin is non-existent) to stand for zero in a list.[[User:Cmurphynz|Cmurphynz]] 09:42, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
:: Please let us know I would love to read it and we could also put it as the reference to the article. Thanks Andy! [[User:Johnfranklin|Johnfranklin]] 22:39, 10 June 2010 (EDT)
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:::The concept of nothing or zero existed by the [[Middle Ages]]. Many credit [[India]] with the discovery of zero/nothing around [[A.D.]] 500, I think.
  
::: This account from Friday's newspaper in the [[U.K.]] is analogous but doesn't specifically mention the experience of seeing people walking as the eyesight is restoredIt does, however, capture the overall sensation. (cite moved to content page)
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:::But if Romans had not been so resistant to the [[Bible]] then they would have discovered and used it far sooner.  The importance of zero/nothing is pervasive in the BibleIndeed, I'll add the insight in one passage about how 0 times a large number is still zero.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 09:53, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
:::: I looked in the history of the article and show that you added this on 24 November 2009.  Do you remember where this information came from? Was it from a medical journal or newspaper or something different? [[User:Johnfranklin|Johnfranklin]] 23:08, 10 June 2010 (EDT)
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:::*The Romans were - most of the time - not resistant to the Bible, but ignorant of it: from 753 B.C. until 100 A.D., there was only the Old Testament around, and Judaism is not exactly religion encouraging missionaries...
 +
:::*Bede used ''nulla'' in the early 8th century, the decimal system was introduced by Fibonacci in the 12th century. The inventors were the Hindus which generally didn't know the Bible at all: So was the knowledge of the Bible detrimental to the introduction of zero as a powerful mathematical concept?
 +
:::*Again, please give us a sample of verses were zero occurs in the Bible - that shouldn't be difficult for you, as you claim that ''The importance of zero/nothing is pervasive in the Bible''.
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:::[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 10:09, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
::::: I heard it from a medical source -- an eye surgeon I believe -- which may not have been publishedThe foregoing newspaper accounts come close but if the editors become aware of the similarity with the biblical account, then I doubt they would publish it.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:25, 10 June 2010 (EDT)
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=== Argument from Numerology ===
 +
''Also, in Matthew 16:26, Jesus points out that after one loses his soul (the equivalent of zero), no multiplication of value can amount to anything: it's still zero. In other words, anything times zero is still zero, an insight the Romans lacked. ''
 +
   
 +
Aschlafy, you are introducing numerology into scripture! There is no mention of zero in this verse, you put it into it for your convenience!
  
:::::: Sounds like an interesting story wish I was able to read it.  Maybe I will come across it in the future.  Also in cases where there is no written source how should these types of things be referenced on conservapedia? [[User:Johnfranklin|Johnfranklin]] 11:41, 11 June 2010 (EDT)
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''For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul?'' (Matthew 16:26)
  
::::::: Unlike Wikipedia, Conservapedia recognizes liberal bias in newspapers.  Accordingly, not all newspapers citations are valid (due to bias), and some citations are difficult to find because liberals are censoring the information in publications they control.  In the latter case, we keep looking when there is reason to think a statement is true, rather than censoring the truth to the detriment of visitors.  Conservapedia is a leader, not a follower.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 12:56, 11 June 2010 (EDT)
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Where did you get the idea that the Romans lacked the insight that ''anything times zero is still zero''? Any scholarly source?
  
(unident) I hope this isn't taken the wrong way, but it sounds as though you are saying Add content to articles that is believed to be valid and then find sources that match rather than finding useful information and then putting it into the article. If you can't then just leave it unsourced. In that case I should add information about volcanoes since some believe that information in the bible (Sodom and Gomorrah) predates scientific knowledge. I however don't have sources for this. [[User:Johnfranklin|Johnfranklin]] 13:55, 11 June 2010 (EDT)
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And you are not even consistent: On other places you are talking about the concept of infinity - but zero times infinity isn't necessarily zero....
 +
--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 04:36, 16 September 2012 (EDT)
  
Until we have a citation for the medical knowledge that verifies the phenomenon of "trees walking", this "eyesight" portion has no factual basis and should be removed. [[User:PhyllisS|PhyllisS]] 21:43, 6 July 2010 (EDT)
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*My [http://conservapedia.com/index.php?title=Biblical_scientific_foreknowledge&diff=1006985&oldid=1006734 edit] comment got mangled - it should read: ''why zero and not -&infin;? That's just  arbitrary...
 +
*if you try to read mathematics into Matthew 16:26, one way is to say that the soul is of infinite value, therefore its worth more than all existing things. Another way is to say that it is of a very great, but finite value, but worth more than all existing things. A third, more modern way, is to claim that it doesn't make sense to compare the soul and mundane things, i.e., that there is no complete order on the value of everything. But these are all interpretations of this verse, none of which is ''obvious''-
  
== Engineering ==
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--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 01:38, 17 September 2012 (EDT)
  
Hmm... How does Joel 2:3-4 predict automobiles?  Also, there is no Isaiah 31:56...  although I definitely see how Ecc 10:20 could be a reference to radio! [[User:JacobB|JacobB]]<sub>[[User talk:JacobB|Shout out!]]</sub> 23:46, 11 June 2010 (EDT)
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:The most straightforward interpretation is that when a man loses his soul, he has nothing (zero).--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 01:18, 26 September 2012 (EDT)
 +
::I'm afraid that is ''straightforward'' only to you - especially the use of the multiplication: when we lose or acquire things, we tend to add their value, not to multiply it. [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 01:25, 26 September 2012 (EDT)
  
: It was a suggestion taken from a credible site. I admit my skepticism about these alleged predictions of engineering developments also, but have an open mind about them. Obviously if there is no Isaiah 31:56, then that is a real problem!  Please feel free to revise as you think appropriate.
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IMO numerological arguments are meaningless, but here is the most "obvious" or "straightforward" rendition of the verse using your "values"lost soul (0) + world (some value x) = x, ergo something. Have you found anyone else who realized that this verse uses the concept of zero? Or is this insight shared by no one else, allowing only you to see this reference to zero?
  
: Of course, when [[Leonardo da Vinci]] sketched something flying, every atheist claims he had foreknowledge of the airplane!!!--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:52, 11 June 2010 (EDT)
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Such "insights" can be constructed for the Iliad, too! Does this mean that the Greek gods gave us the zero?  
::Haha - ironic considering that though he disagreed with the Church of his day on many topics, he was nevertheless a practicing Catholic!  
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::A little bit of digging reveals Isaiah 40:31, which reads ''"But they that wait upon the LORD shall renew their strength; they shall mount up with wings as eagles; they shall run, and not be weary; and they shall walk, and not faint."''  I wonder if that's the passage they meant? I'll change it to that, since 31:56 doesn't exist, although I confess your skepticism that these are actual references to airplanes. [[User:JacobB|JacobB]]<sub>[[User talk:JacobB|Shout out!]]</sub> 00:09, 12 June 2010 (EDT)
+
  
::: I do believe that this was meant to be Isaiah 31:5 and the 6 was a mistake("Like birds hovering overhead, the LORD Almighty will shield Jerusalem; he will shield it and deliver it, he will 'pass over' it and will rescue it.") however I think the point the referenced article was trying to make was that one should not try to reinterpret biblical passages to make it fit what you want instead look at the context of what it it is trying to say and not just the verse. In this case Isaiah 31:5 is more about God keeping Jerusalem safe from Egypt and not about Airplanes flying over head. Unless of course God is keeping it safe with F-14. [[User:Johnfranklin|Johnfranklin]] 11:43, 13 June 2010 (EDT)
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[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 01:55, 26 September 2012 (EDT)
  
:::: I have an open mind about this, but admit that it struck me as too much of a reach.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:45, 13 June 2010 (EDT)
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==  The significance of blood  ==
  
::::: Well, in the Six-Day War the Israeli Air Force did keep Jerusalem and Israel defended and safe from Eyptian planes by destroying most of them while they were still on the ground. Maybe the verses were telling contemporary Israelites and the future Israelis they were safe, but only the latter  would understand that the birds represented air planes. It's possible. As Mr. Schlafly says, we should keep an open mind. --[[User:ReligiousRight|ReligiousRight]] 01:21, 14 June 2010 (EDT)
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''The Old Testament teaches that the life of all flesh is its blood (Leviticus 17:13-14 (KJV)). Secular science remained ignorant of the properties and circulation of blood until the 17th century A.D.''
  
== Reversion explained ==
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That is not correct - the source itself states: ''That is, life depends upon the existence and circulation of blood, '''a truth known empirically''' but not scientifically tested and proved until the 17th century a.d. (cf. Lev 17:11).''
  
The opinion was reverted because it did not apply to the specific examples.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:56, 27 June 2010 (EDT)
+
Indeed, the blood circuit couldn't be seen completely before the invention of the microscope...
  
== Incorrect value of Pi ==
+
[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 06:36, 14 September 2012 (EDT)
  
''Pi when expressed as one digit is equal to 3'' - I think this sentence should be suppressed, because the text gives Pi with '''two''' decimal places, as the ratio of 30 cubits to 10 cubits. [[User:Sunda62|Sunda62]] 16:43, 6 July 2010 (EDT)
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== God and Calculus ==
  
: No, "30 cubits to 10 cubits" is only one significant digit apiece.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 17:29, 6 July 2010 (EDT)
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''The Bible emphasizes the importance of limits as a key distinction between this world and God; Calculus consists of relying on limits to derive useful results.''
  
:: Aren't we overlooking 1 Kings 7:26? "And it was a hand breadth thick,.." The thickness must be taken into consideration. Using the equation 30C ÷ 3.1415962 + 2H = 10C. C=cubits, H=hand breadth. We are able to solve the equation using my cubit (18.5 inches), and we get:
+
Where does the Bible do so? The ''"source"'' - [http://www.aiias.edu/ict/vol_27/27cc_225-239.htm Norie Grace Rivera-Poblete: "''God and Calculus''"], Institute for Christian Teaching Education Department of [[Seventh-day Adventist]], Prepared for the 27th International Faith and Learning Seminar held at Mission, Muak Lek Saraburi, Thailand December 3 – 15, 2000 - gives '''''one ''''' example:  
 +
*''"Limit" reminds us of the experience of the Israelites, as they traveled through the wilderness. Most of the adult Israelites who came out from Egypt did not enter the Promised Land except for Caleb and Joshua. The children of Israel "approached" the Promised Land; generally speaking, all of them reached the border. But none of them would have made it were it not for God's limitless love and grace.   Even though they disobeyed Him so many times, God still kept His covenant with the Israelites. ''
 +
That's just not convincing. --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 16:33, 14 September 2012 (EDT)
  
::555 inches (30 x 18.5) circumference
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== The Concept of Infinity ==
  
::176.662 inches (555 ÷ 3.14159) diameter
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''Most thinkers scoffed at the concept of infinity for thousands of years, despite being referenced in the Bible in many ways. See, e.g., Psalm 147:4-6 (God's "understanding is infinte"); Matthew 20:1-14 (parable of the wages for the workers in the vineyard). ''
  
::The difference between 185 inches(10x18.5) and 176.662 inches is 8.338 inches. This is two of my hand breadths!(8.338÷2=4.169) Remember, you must take into account two hand breadths, one for the opposite sides of the circular object.
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#Where is the concept of infinity in the parable of the vineyard? Every worker has worked for at least an hour, and everyone gets the same amount of money - its subtext is about the infinite reward we may receive, but the parable itself is certainly finite...
 +
#My Hebrew is worse than my Greek, but to my understanding the Greek idea of infinity/infinities (actual vs. potential) is more sophisticated than the one in the Old Testament. In fact you'll find that in the psalms the same word is used to describe ''the number of the stars'' and God's ''infinite wisdom'':  מִסְפָּר (mispar)
  
::You can measure your own cubit from elbow to longest finger tip, and the difference will be two of your hand breadths!!
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[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 16:46, 14 September 2012 (EDT)
  
::This example of Pi should be in the foreknowledge section. Pi is in the Bible 1000 B.C. before the Greeks rediscovered Pi!--[[User:Bryantjwb|Bryantjwb]] 22:47, 8 August 2010 (EDT)
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:The owner of the vineyard has infinite wealth relative to the workers. The parable is illogical only to those who resist the concept of infinity, as non-believers did until mathematicians accepted the concept more than 1500 years later.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 10:03, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
::: Interesting.  Any comments by others on the validity of the above suggestion?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 22:51, 8 August 2010 (EDT)
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::Do you say that the early Christians didn't understand the parable as the generally hadn't a concept of infinity?
 +
::And, pray, how does the ''owner of the vineyard has infinite wealth relative to the workers''? He wasn't even rich as Midas....
 +
::[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 10:13, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
:::: It can also be solved by using the description in scripture, 1 Kings 7:26 "...and its brim was made like the brim of a cup, as a lily blossom;"NASB In other words, the brim flared outward like a flowering lily. So, the diameter was measured from 'brim to brim' which flared out further than the body of the bath. [[http://creation.com/images/creation_mag/vol17/p24_moltensea.jpg]] Click to see illustration.--[[User:Bryantjwb|Bryantjwb]] 21:27, 19 August 2010 (EDT)
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''For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul?'' (Matthew 16:26) Interesting, how Matthew avoids the term ''infinite''... [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 10:41, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
::::http://creation.com/does-the-bible-say-pi-equals-3
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== Light and Color ==
  
::::The calculation is the same as using the handbreadth equation above, the difference being the amount of flare beyond the body of the bath round about.--[[User:Bryantjwb|Bryantjwb]] 21:27, 19 August 2010 (EDT)
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=== Light and Color ===
  
:::::There's a specific thing we all overlooked: people's bodily measurements for cubits and handbreadths are of different sizes.  My personal handbreadth is 8.25 inches; my personal cubit is 18 inches exactly.  Someone who is about 6.3 feet tall will have slightly-larger measurements.  Moses was educated in Egypt, and he was familiar with the Royal Egyptian cubit of about 22 inches.  So, I'm a bit curious here.  Take my measurements and make some new calculations based on what was said above; take Andy's and do the same; take your's, Bryant, and do the same, and let's see what we get.  [[User:Karajou|Karajou]] 22:53, 19 August 2010 (EDT)
 
  
::::::The size difference is not an issue, because they used a standard. The Hebrew standard cubit was about 18 inches and the handbreadth was about 4 inches. I used my cubit (18.5) in the equation above. Karajou, your handbreadth would be 4.125 with 8.25 being two handbreadths. Using the standard Hebrew cubit and handbreadth, plug in the numbers, 18 x 10 cubits = 180 - 8 = 172 inches
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''The transfiguration of Jesus is described with remarkable consistency in all three synoptic [[Gospel]]s: in the fullness of light Jesus and his clothing display an intense white, whiter than any bleach could produce. This illustrates what was not discovered and accepted until nearly 1700 years later: that white is the combination of other fundamental colors, and the purest white light is formed by a perfectly full combination (see [[Prism]]).''
  
::::::Circumference = diameter x pi
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The color white seems to be a universal symbol of purity - I fail to see who this is a description  ''that white is the combination of other fundamental colors, and the purest white light is formed by a perfectly full combination'' - did Jesus wear a rainbow - coat? [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 17:34, 14 September 2012 (EDT)
::::::..............= 172 in x 3.14
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::::::..............= 540 inches
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::::::..............= 30 cubits (540 ÷ 18)--[[User:Bryantjwb|Bryantjwb]] 00:43, 20 August 2010 (EDT)
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This section has a false title. The Bible does not "give a value of pi" but rather relates the circumference of a particular structure to its diameter:
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:Your first sentence seems to be missing something, and I don't see its relevance anyway. The Bible is not describing a symbol, but an actual event.  No, the fullness of light is not a rainbow because the colors are not separated from each other.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 00:06, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
* He made the Sea of cast metal, circular in shape, measuring ten cubits [a] from rim to rim and five cubits high. It took a line of thirty cubits [b] to measure around it.
+
== Christians do not "mock" creationist concepts ==
  
Ten cubits doesn't mean 220 inches, plus or minus one inch. It's obviously a [[round number]]. Atheists are grasping at straws if they think the rim to rim distance was being givin to within less than 5 percent.
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''atheists are the ones who "mocked" the creationist concept for about 100 years; Christians do not "mock" creationist concepts''
  
The tip off should be that both numbers were a multiple of ten. Now, if we saw a number like 35 cubits for the diameter, '''then''' we might expect a more precise value for the circumference, i.e., 110 cubits.
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They would mock them - if they didn't see them as ''creationist concepts''! Wegener was mocked by the ''American Association of Petroleum Geologists'' in a conference in the 1920s. Were there only atheists in this association? No, of course not. But there were Christians which supported other theories, partly perhaps as those seemed to be more easily reconcilable with Scripture. Who are we to criticize them for not recognizing Wegener's theory as better fitting into [[Biblical scientific foreknowledge]]? --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 11:18, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
By drawing such foolish conclusions, atheists and liberals just show how inconsistent their own reasoning is, rather than "pointing out" any supposed error in the Bible.  
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:[[Atheism]] promotes pseudo-intellectual mockery in a way that [[Christianity]] does not.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 16:24, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
I'd like to take it back to the Nobel Peace Prize they gave Al Gore and them all for ignoring the fact that [[correlation is not causation]] and deciding that atmospheric temperature is driven by carbon dioxide levels. --[[User:Ed Poor|Ed Poor]] <sup>[[User talk:Ed Poor|Talk]]</sup> 17:10, 1 October 2010 (EDT)
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::Any examples? [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 16:29, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
== Biblical Hindsight is 20/20 ==
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:::Are you joking?  Perhaps 90% of [[atheistic]] commentary against [[creationist]] concepts is juvenile mockery, with very little logical or scientific substance.  This was as true in the [[Scopes Trial]] (1925) as it is today.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 16:39, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
Biblical Hindsight is 20/20
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::::Well, more than 90% of Christian commentary against evolutionary concepts is juvenile mockery, at least on this site (see [[:Category:Satire]]). So this doesn't corroborate your statement ''[[Atheism]] promotes pseudo-intellectual mockery '''in a way that [[Christianity]] does not.''''' --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 16:49, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
The "eyesight" portion should be removed, not only as there is yet no ''citation for the medical knowledge that verifies the phenomenon of "trees walking"'' as [[User:PhyllisS]] states above, but because there is the dubious statement that ''This perception was first confirmed nearly 2000 years later as physicians developed medical techniques for restoring eyesight'', thereby inferring that the 20th century saw the first restored eyesights. In fact, couching the cataract - an operation which can restore eyesight - is very ancient, sanctioned as early as in the [[Code of Hammurabi]], was practiced by Celsus (25BC-50AD) during the lifetime of Jesus Christ and later [http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.02.0137:book=25:chapter=92&highlight=couching mentioned] by [[Pliny the Elder]] (23-79 AD), a contemporary of Mark (see [http://www.rila.co.uk/issues/free/001/2001/v4n2/p61_65/p61_65.html A short history of cataract surgery]). So, there were eyewitnesses for the phenomena go along with regaining your sight in the time of Mark.
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[[User:FrankC|FrankC aka ComedyFan]] 13:06, 7 July 2010 (EDT)
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:Interesting, and I'd like to learn more, especially whether "couching the cataract" restored sight to the blind.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 21:00, 7 July 2010 (EDT)
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:::::Your link is to far less than 90% of this site.  See [[Counterexamples to Evolution]] and [[Counterexamples to an Old Earth]] and [[Radiometric Dating]], and numerous other entries.  Also, there is not a tradition of [[Christians]] mocking [[atheists]] anything like the converse, which dates back to the [[Passion of Christ]].--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 17:17, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
 +
A few points:
  
:P.S. The cite explaining the history above does not describe the sensation of restoring sight from complete blindness.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 21:06, 7 July 2010 (EDT)
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1. Conservapedia has a 21 page article on evolution which quotes/cites prominent evolutionists amongst others. The article has over 300 footnotes.
  
== Unclean hands and food ==
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2. Elijah mocked the prophets of Baal.
  
I may have misunderstood what you are trying to say perhaps, but to the best of my knowledge, washing one's hands before cooking and/or eating is one of the basic rules of hygiene, extremely important in the prevention of disease. My father is a doctor, and if he didn't perform this very simple step very seriously, after visiting patients with all sorts of ailments, his health would undoubtedly be threatened. And the importance of this simple procedure, to the best of my scientific knowledge, is very important not only for doctors, but for everyone.
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3. The majority of satires were on atheism and not evolutionism. The Bible says that atheists are fools and that honor is not fitting for a fool. The most ardent evolutionists post WWII have been atheists/agnostics. The Conservapedia atheism article is 54 pages long with over 300 footnotes and cites atheists among others.  
Likewise, eating "unclean" food can and WILL make you ill - poorly conserved and poorly cooked food can have high amounts of pathogens that can cause all sorts of trouble, from bacteria to viruses to tapeworms.
+
  
Matthew 15:11, "It is not what enters into the mouth that defiles the man, but what proceeds out of the mouth, this defiles the man" does not, in my opinion, refer to the health of the human body, but rather to the health of the soul. No matter what you eat or how you eat it, your soul will not suffer because of it, is what, in my opinion, Jesus is saying. But the body can, and will, suffer, depending on what enters your mouth, and that is undeniable.
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4. Evolutionists have shown themselves to be deceitful cowards. Deceitful cowards deserve to be mocked. See: [[Atheism and deception]] and [[Atheism and cowardice]] and [[Creation scientists tend to win the creation vs. evolution debates]]
  
To say - as I think the article is stating - that unclean hands or unclean food do not cause disease is to turn your back on the very thing that extended the life expectancy of mankind so much in the past 1000 years, namely, proper hygiene. It also has the potential to cause harm to anyone who actually believes it, and thinks that eating "unclean" food or not following proper hygiene rules cannot really harm his health.  
+
5. [[Shockofgod]] loves the satires and is going to do a whole series of weekly videos on the satires of atheism and evolutionism.  
  
If you know of any relevant scientific source that says that eating "unclean food" or eating with "unclean hands" is not unadvisable, please post it for all to see.
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I hope that clears things up. [[User:Conservative|Conservative]] 17:20, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
 
+
Thank you, --[[User:MarcoT2|MarcoT2]] 08:59, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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+
: Thank you for your comment, but it illustrates how the medical misunderstanding of digestion persists even 2000 years after Jesus stated the real truth.  It is not in Matthew 15:11 where Jesus explained why it is not necessary always to wash one's hands before eating, but somewhere in Mark (I think).
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: Good hygiene is helpful and has extended lifespan, but usually not by protecting the digestive system.  The digestive system is powerful enough to destroy nearly everything that is harmful.  The reason people are told today to wash their hands is typically not to protect what they eat, but to avoid spreading to their eyes and nose and others, particularly to those with weak immune systems.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 10:27, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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+
:: Dear Andrew,
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:: Thanks for answering so quickly! Unfortunately, I cannot say I agree with you. Proper handwashing, especially before preparing or consuming meals, does prevent diseases - not only related to contact of patogens with eyes and nose, but also with contacts of pathogens with the oral cavity, where they eventually end up in the stomach. According to the World Health Organization, ''Handwashing with soap is among the most effective and inexpensive ways to prevent diarrheal diseases and pneumonia, which together are responsible for the majority of child deaths.''<ref>http://www.who.int/gpsc/events/2008/Global_Handwashing_Day_Planners_Guide.pdf</ref> Diarrheal diseases, needless to say, involve the DIGESTIVE system. Stomach flu is also another disease of the digestive system which can be prevented in many cases by proper handwashing. Not washing one's hands before preparing or consuming a meal also provides helminths (aka worms) with an easy way in to your intestine. Again, another potential problem to the digestive trait whose risk can be easily cut by handwashing. So the digestive system does not appear to "destroy nearly everything that is harmful" as you seem to claim. Of course, our immunitary system does a good job, but it is not an invincible shield. And, of course people with weak immune systems (children, old people, people with immunitary diseases) will have even more risks, but not washing one's hands is a potential health hazard for healthy people, as well.
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::For more information please refer to this WHO document about the importance of handwashing. http://www.who.int/gpsc/events/2008/Global_Handwashing_Day_Planners_Guide.pdf
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::If you have any scientific source which supports your point of view, by all means provide a link or a reference, I'm always happy to examine other points of view too.
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::Thank you,
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::--[[User:MarcoT2|MarcoT2]] 11:05, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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::<references />
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:::Catching disease by having unclean hands at a meal is a grossly exaggerated risk, like other phobias.  Worse, educated people who should know better are the ones who exaggerate this risk the most.  I'm not saying the risk is zero; other exaggerated fears have some theoretical basis also.  But Jesus was right in debunking this fear and the theory behind it.  Science is still trying to catch up to where Jesus was 2000 years ago on this.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 12:57, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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::::(link dump reverted) Marco, I reverted your dump of links.  I looked at the first two and found them to be barely related to the point at issue here.  This site is a place for reasoned argument.  Please address my statement above or make another reasoned argument, supported by your best link or two.  Thanks.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 14:49, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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:::::Washing one's hands reduces the risk that you'll put germs into your eyes.
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:::::*As you touch people, surfaces and objects throughout the day, you accumulate germs on your hands. In turn, you can infect yourself with these germs by touching your eyes, nose or mouth. [http://www.mayoclinic.com/health/hand-washing/HQ00407]
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:::::You don't have to worry about germs getting into your food unless you've been touching human waste. But if you serve hundreds of people, the law requires you to wash your hands after using the bathroom. --[[User:Ed Poor|Ed Poor]] <sup>[[User talk:Ed Poor|Talk]]</sup> 14:57, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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:::::: In response to the indented comment above, it says nothing about touching food with unclean hands and eating it, which is the point of this discussion.  Ed's point about the law requiring hand-washing by food preparers after handling human waste is well-taken, but the law does not required this of the people who eat the food.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 15:07, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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::::::: Dear Andy, I don't understand why you "found my links to be barely related to the point at issue here". Let's see if we can agree on the following points:
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:::::::1. The point at issue here is the importance of handwashing as a precautionary hygienic measure.
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:::::::2. What is at issue is also whether such measure is especially important before consuming food.
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:::::::3. The links I have provided, and which I can provide again should you so desire, were scientific studies examining the incidence of several diseases, most of them involving the digestive trait, in subjects that routinely wash their hands, and subjects that don't.
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:::::::4. Such studies concluded that the incidence of said diseases was considerably lower in those who wash their hands.
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:::::::In light of this, I don't see why you claimed that the links I provided were only "barely related". I also don't see why you reverted my edit and deleted it, instead of simply replying to my post saying that the links were only marginally related. Had you done so, people could have accessed them and decided for themselves whether it was true that they were unrelated or not. As it is, they only have your word that they were.
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:::::::I can spend my time and energies to provide you with a reasoned, sourced refutation of your point, but before I do so, I need your assurance that it will not be censored. (I will of course not be abusive or offensive in any way: I will only expose my point of view, and back it up with sources.)
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:::::::If you assure me that my post will not be reverted and deleted, I will write it. Otherwise, I will refrain from commenting further on this debate.
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:::::::Sincerely yours, --[[User:MarcoT2|MarcoT2]] 16:34, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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::::::::Marco, I pointed out that Jesus was right in debunking an irrational phobia about eating with unclean hands.  You responded with a link dump that lacked any sense of proportionality (risk), or applicability to the typical situation that Jesus was addressing.  It's as though I said that the typical fear of flying is irrational, whereby you respond with a link dump of news stories about random plane crashes!--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 16:41, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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:::::::::Ok, we can agree on that, one will not automatically die every time he has lunch without washing his hands. The risk is not high, and scaremongering is unnecessary. Yet, in my opinion, handwashing before eating should be considered an important hygienic practice, and, in some contexts, even vital. The importance is especially evident in underdeveloped countries, where even the adoption of a simple practice like this can save many lives. What I think we can agree on is, "not washing hands before eating is not deadly nor incredibly dangerous, but it is nonetheless very advisable."
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:::::::::This said, we can consider this debate concluded and move on to more constructive matters (personally, I like to spend my time on Conservapedia spellchecking articles :) )
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:::::::::Regards, --[[User:MarcoT2|MarcoT2]] 17:09, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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::::::::::Marco, I appreciate your gracious reply, but I do feel compelled to emphasize that it was Jesus who was right 2000 years ago, not me.  Moreover, I'm not trying to persuade you, but rather to observe that to this day even the smartest among us exaggerate the risk of eating with unwashed hands contrary to what Jesus simply stated.  This risk is not zero, as you point out, but (like the risk of plane crashes) it is small enough to rebuke the fear-mongering.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 17:34, 11 July 2010 (EDT)
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<- Andy, you are right when you are thinking about bacterial infections. But what about [http://newyorkhealth.gov/diseases/communicable/pinworm/fact_sheet.htm pinworms], [http://www.fsis.usda.gov/factsheets/parasites_and_foodborne_illness/index.asp#7 tapeworms], or [http://www.cdc.gov/ncidod/dpd/parasites/giardiasis/factsht_giardia.htm Giardia]? Especially under the more interesting hygienic conditions of the Near East, it is consoling to know that the man who breaks your bread has scrubbed his hands clean from all the worm's eggs which are designed to be taken in orally. [[User:FrankC|FrankC aka ComedyFan]] 11:54, 13 July 2010 (EDT)
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:Your links are not applicable to the typical situation, as addressed by Jesus.  This illustrates why Conservapedia favors reasoned argument, with a superb cite, rather than lack of argument with many cites.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 14:01, 13 July 2010 (EDT)
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::''Your links are not applicable to the typical situation, as addressed by Jesus. ''
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::What the typical situation, as addressed by Jesus? We read in Mark 7:1-5 (NIV)
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:::''<sup>1</sup>The Pharisees and some of the teachers of the law who had come from Jerusalem gathered around Jesus and <sup>2</sup>saw some of his disciples eating food with hands that were "unclean," that is, unwashed. <sup>3</sup>(The Pharisees and all the Jews do not eat unless they give their hands a ceremonial washing, holding to the tradition of the elders. <sup>4</sup>When they come from the marketplace they do not eat unless they wash. And they observe many other traditions, such as the washing of cups, pitchers and kettles.)''
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::Or taken from the [[Conservapedia Bible Project]] Mark 7:3-4
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:::''<sup>3</sup>The reason for this was that the Pharisees, along with all the other Jews, had a tradition never to eat unless they had washed their hands.<sup>4</sup>When they came from the public square, they did not eat unless they had washed first. They retained many other traditions, such as the washing of cups, pots, kettles, and tables.''
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::This seems to be an excellent advice if you want for instance to minimize the chance of an infection with [[Intestinal Roundworm]]s (the most common human worm infection  with the highest prevalence in tropical and subtropical regions, and areas with inadequate sanitation [http://www.dpd.cdc.gov/dpdx/html/ascariasis.htm]) in the ''typical situation'' in  Galilee  for centuries to come!
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::Please keep in mind that what we think to be the ''typical situation'', i.e., Western standards of food preparation and disposition of fecal matters, is in fact an historical and geographical exception!
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::[[User:FrankC|FrankC aka ComedyFan]] 12:07, 14 July 2010 (EDT)
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A Hungarian doctor of the nineteenth century, Ignaz Semmelweis, understood the control of deadly infectious diseases through washing. Despite his great attempts to get the medical community to comply, they resisted and eventually Dr. Semmelweis had a breakdown[32]  and committed suicide. Yet the ancient Israelites washed in "running water" when dealing with those afflicted with infectious discharges or coming in contact with items that they had come in contact with. For example, the Mosaic law states in the book of Leviticus the following:"And when he who has a discharge is cleansed of his discharge, then he shall count for himself seven days for his cleansing, wash his clothes, and bathe his body in running water; then he shall be clean. Leviticus 15:13"[http://www.creationwiki.org/Bible_scientific_foreknowledge] [[User:Conservative|conservative]] 04:29, 5 October 2010 (EDT)
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:::Max Neuberger, writing in his "History of Medicine" declares: "The commands concern prophylaxis and suppression of epidemics,[16] suppression of venereal disease and prostitution, care of the skin, baths...housing and clothing, regulation of labour, sexual life, discipline of the people, etc. Many of these commands, such as Sabbath rest, circumcision,[18][19]...measures concerning menstruating and lying-in women,[20] and those suffering from gonorrhoea, isolation of lepers, and hygiene of the camp, are, in view of the conditions of the climate, surprisingly rational.[21]"[http://www.creationwiki.org/Bible_scientific_foreknowledge] [[User:Conservative|conservative]] 04:35, 5 October 2010 (EDT)
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If I were a liberal or an atheist and read this ridiculous "Digestive System" section, I would send it to my like-minded friends so they could laugh at this utter nonsense. 
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Jesus shunned the POMP and CEREMONY surrounding the hand-washing RITUALS created by the Pharisees and the legalists of the day and pointed out that people are not made clean by hand-washing CEREMONIES but by the words that come out of their mouths. (Matt 15:1-2,11 Some Pharisees and teachers of religious law now arrived from Jerusalem to see Jesus. They asked him, “Why do your disciples disobey our age-old tradition? For they ignore our tradition of ceremonial hand washing before they eat.” [Jesus replied] “It’s not what goes into your mouth that defiles you; you are defiled by the words that come out of your mouth.” NLT). The CBP Analysis says the same of those verses: "The hand-washing was a ritual exercise, another part of the Pharisees' body of extra-Biblical regulations."  Jesus said the same thing in Mark 7.  He is remarking on spiritual cleanliness - not physical cleanliness.
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Jesus wasn't contradicting the PHYSICAL cleanliness laws (see Exodus, Leviticus, Deuteronomy) which HE HIMSELF had spoken to Moses (as God the Son) thousands of years previously.  Physical cleanliness was the very reason he had given those laws and others like them (eg circumcision to prevent vaginal infections [but it has no spiritual value]).
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All anyone has to do to prove that he truly believes hand washing doesn't help your digestive health is to handle some dog/cat/chicken/pig mess in their bare hands and not wash them before eating.  Any takers?
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Please, please delete this section.  It is based on a misinterpretation of Jesus' words.  He was showing his disdain for CEREMONIES - not cleanliness.
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Kindest regards [[User:Spotsbunch|Spotsbunch]] 12:36, 14 May 2011 (EDT)
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As nobody has taken up my challenge (to NOT wash his/her hands after handling animal excrement and then eating), does anyone object to the complete removal of this laughable section on handwashing (whose Biblical reference has nothing to do with Jesus telling people that handwashing is unnecessary and everything to do with Jesus telling people that CEREMONY is unnecessary)?  The arguments above purport that Jesus contradicted the very commands He Himself gave to Moses thousands of years before.  Jesus could not contradict Himself. 
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If there are no objections in a reasonable amount of time, I'm going to delete it.
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Kindest regards [[User:Spotsbunch|Spotsbunch]] 15:40, 10 July 2011 (EDT)
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: I object to its deletion.  While you make an interesting point, I doubt that the handwashing that Jesus rejected was merely "ceremonial".  Jesus did seem to making a point about germs.  The unusual example of where handwashing is essential did not apply in this (or most) situations.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 18:37, 10 July 2011 (EDT)
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:Jesus did NOT AT ALL seem to be making a point about germs.  He was talking to an audience who had never heard of them.
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:Andy, I'll bet you wash your hands before eating, don't you?  Especially if you've been to the bathroom, right?  You can't expect me to believe that if you and your wife sat down to lunch and she asked what that little mark was on the back of your hand and you said: "Nothing to be concerned about darling - it's just a little smear of poop," that she would respond with anything less than shock and immediately order you to the bathroom to wash your hands. 
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:If the handwashing that Jesus rejected was not merely "ceremonial", then why does the CBP analysis of that verse say: "The hand-washing was a ritual exercise, another part of the Pharisees' body of extra-Biblical regulations"?
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:Obviously, if *you* object (to its deletion), I will not delete the section - but *you* should delete it.  It is based on *your* opinion, and contradicts science, good sense and the hygiene laws God the Son (aka Jesus) gave to Moses in Leviticus 15.  To leave the article as is may save your pride in here but invites scathing public mockery at the hands of someone like Stephen Colbert.
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:Kindest regards [[User:Spotsbunch|Spotsbunch]] 17:48, 11 July 2011 (EDT)
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:Thanks, I think you made my case very well. [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 17:25, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
:: The tone of your comments surprises me.  We resolve issues here based on reason.  Of course the disciples were unaware of germs, but Jesus does seem to have been making a point about health and hygiene.  Your example is inapplicable to the situation in the Bible, or most meals.  If the [[CBP]] translation needs improvement based on a reasoned analysis, then I'll improve it. In fact, I'll take a look at it now!--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 21:16, 11 July 2011 (EDT)
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::August, you haven't addressed the fundamental way that [[atheists]] have relied '''''primarily''''' on juvenile mockery against creationism, dating back to the [[Passion of Christ]] as well as statements by [[Clarence Darrow]] during the [[Scopes Trial]].--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 17:33, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
::I mean no disrespect - I'm just a little frustrated - and I agree that we resolve issues here based on reason - which is why I'm frustrated because I and other conservative contributors to this article (doubtless smarter than myself) (above) see your POV as totally wrong.  They have made many good arguments but you have vetoed them all.
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:::My point is that the degree of ''juvenile mockery'' of both sides is roughly the same. And were there any atheists present at the [[Passion of Christ]]? I doubt it: there were Romans of various religious beliefs (Rome was quite tolerant) and Jews, but atheist aren't mentioned in the Bible... [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 17:41, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  
::My example is in fact very applicable to the situation in the BibleThe people in the Bible were surrounded by farm animals and their excrement - and it would have been on their hands fairly frequently - it was certainly on their feet.  In John 13:10 Jesus said that a "person who has bathed all over does not need to wash, except for the feet, to be entirely clean..." clearly stating that a person is dirty unless he has had a bath.  He said folks need to wash their feet (that they don't even eat with).  Jesus didn't want to wash Peter's hands (or his head) before they ate because he (Peter) had already washed them when he had a bath and it was therefore unnecessary.
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::::It's easy to compare the statements by [[Clarence Darrow]] against the statements by [[William Jennings Bryan]] during the [[Scopes Trial]]There's no doubt that Darrow relied on mockery far, far more than Bryan did.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 17:49, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
 +
AugustO, a few more points:
  
::Perhaps I should ask for a citation. The article states (under "Digestive System"): "It took many centuries before science caught up to the Bible on this."  Would you (or anyone) please cite the scientific source that shows that hand washing is "typically unnecessary" and where science "caught up to the Bible".  If such a thing is so, there must be a medical journal or scientific publication that it was taken from.  
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1. God willing, the Evangelical Covenant Church in Germany will spread the [http://creation.com/15 15 questions] that evolutionists cannot satisfactorily answer in Germany. Unlike the Protestant denomination that you belong to, they are growing in Germany.  
  
::(PS - on a totally unrelated note, the Biblical city of Gath (from where Goliath came) was in the news today - uncovered by archaeologists - further evidence of the authenticity of the Bible - that should be in the Conservapedia news).
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2. One of the largest conservative Christian ministries in the world linked to my atheism and evolution articles.  
  
::For your consideration. [[User:Spotsbunch|Spotsbunch]] 21:28, 11 July 2011 (EDT)
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3. The [[Concerned Women of America]] (CWA) website links to my atheism and evolution articles.  CWA is the largest women organization in America. Ergo, conservative ladies love my atheism and evolution articles!
  
== Other religions ==
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4. If memory serves, you indicated that the German Protestant denomination, which has some its member churches give homosexual "couple" "blessings", is shrinking.
  
Hello! I know that this is a preeminently Christian site, and I am a Christian myself, but I wanted to point out that other religions also claim that their sacred texts possess remarkable scientific foreknowledge. The Muslim have found passages in the Quran that, they claim, prove that the text was inspired by God, as they denote (in their opinion) a scientific knowledge ahead of the time. Also, the Hindu claim that ALL knowledge is contained in the Vedic texts. I believe it would be interesting to make a comparative study of that too, not of course in this article (which is devoted to the Bible) but in other articles. Does anyone else think that it would be interesting? --[[User:MarcoT2|MarcoT2]] 13:24, 12 July 2010 (EDT)
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I strongly suspect one of the reasons is that your Protestant denomination church body has a sub-replacement level of births. In 2010, Germany had a 1.39 children per woman which is far below the 2.1 replacement level of births.  
  
: I don't mind if you want to start different entries, as you suggest.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 13:34, 12 July 2010 (EDT)
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All true conservative women love babies.  
  
== Mathematics suggestion ==
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All true able bodied conservative Protestant married men love their wives and are hard workers with the Protestant work ethic. They are able to have big families.
  
Here is the text of a suggestion I made that was reverted, which I submit for further discussion: --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 11:22, 25 September 2010 (EDT)
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Ergo, your Protestant church body is likely filled with liberal men and women!
  
=== Axiomatization of Arithmetic ===
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5. Adolf Hitler was a German evolutionary racist and most of the evolutionists German public were enthusiastic followers of him and he spoke before enthusiastic crowds. [[User:Conservative|Conservative]] 18:59, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
The full set of axioms for integer arithmetic may be found in the Bible, as demonstrated by J.C. Keister in [http://www.trinityfoundation.org/PDF/027a-MathandtheBible.pdf this article].  For example, [[Luke 9-16 (Translated)|Luke 12:52]] is a striking statement of the commutative law for addition: "For from this point forward there will be five in one house divided, three against two, and two against three."  This understanding presaged both later attempts at the axiomatization of arithmetic by Peano and the development of [[abstract algebra]] in the 19th and 20th centuries.
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:Your suggestion is interesting and the article by Keister appears to be legitimate. Perhaps the weakness is a lack of weightier examples. I welcome comments by others about this.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 15:35, 25 September 2010 (EDT)
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:#''Unlike the Protestant denomination that you belong to, they are growing in Germany. '' Indeed, and extrapolating the current trends this Germany-wide operating church will have as many members as my church which is restricted mainly to the area of Northern Hesse in just 100 - 150 years.
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:#''One of the largest conservative Christian ministries in the world linked to my atheism and evolution articles. '' Which one? I had troubles to find this link
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:#''The [[Concerned Women of America]] (CWA) website links to my atheism and evolution articles.'' Indeed, it does - sort of: You have to look very hard to find this link. Using the on-site search option, Conservapedia is mentioned once in a footnote in the article [http://www.cwfa.org/familyvoice/2011-02/FamilyVoiceInsight_February2011.pdf Cutting the Cord - The Case for Defunding Planned Parenthood] from Feb 2011. However the link is to [[Planned Parenthood#Planned Parenthood's Teen Website Gets It Barred from California High School]] and not [[Atheism]] or [[Evolution]]. But there is [http://www.cwfa.org/articledisplay.asp?id=15240&department=CFI&categoryid=misc this article] by Matt Barber which praises Conservapedia and mentions its articles on ''on topics ranging from atheism, to homosexuality, to the theory of evolution and so on. '' Sadly this article is quite dated - and nothing links to it on the CWA website.
 +
:#''If memory serves, you indicated that the German Protestant denomination, which has some its member churches give homosexual "couple" "blessings", is shrinking. '' and the population of Germany is shrinking, too. What has this to do with the topic at hand? Is the position of the religious bodies in [[Malaysia]] or [[Indonesia]] more valid as their populations are growing? ''All true able bodied conservative Protestant married men love their wives and are hard workers with the Protestant work ethic. They are able to have big families. '' And many choose not to have big families, but only one to three children. Is this wrong? How many brothers and sisters do you have? How big a family are you planning to have when you reach maturity?
 +
:#Adolf Hitler spoke unfortunately often before crowds in which you would find only few atheists, Nordics, but  an overwhelming number of Christians who he laid astray - but Christians non the less. If his party had relied only on atheists it would have amassed the 5.3 million members it had in 1939...
  
::I appreciate the need for examples, but Keister gives extensive references for this claim in his article.  I anxiously await the input of other editors.
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== Growing obesity problem in the world plus obesity problem in the atheist population ==
::Could you clarify how Jesus walking on water is related to wave-particle duality, and how the scripture demonstrates foreknowledge of this?  I think that showing foreknowledge of a phenomenon should be distinguished from merely documenting an instance of it.  The Bible describes the Sun, but that fact alone does not mean that it shows foreknowledge of the specific mechanisms of nuclear fusion. --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 11:31, 27 September 2010 (EDT)
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::: Go ahead and reinsert your material about axioms for integer arithmetic.
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''This know also, that in the last days perilous times shall come. For men shall be lovers of their own selves, covetous, boasters, proud, blasphemers, disobedient to parents, unthankful, unholy, Without natural affection, trucebreakers, false accusers, incontinent, fierce, despisers of those that are good, treacherous, rash, conceited, lovers of pleasure rather than lovers of God--'' 2&nbsp;Timothy&nbsp;3:1-4
  
::: Will respond to your other question a bit later. Thanks.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 12:20, 27 September 2010 (EDT)
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While Paul enumerates many sins of  men in the end times, gaining weight isn't mentioned explicitly. Reading these verses I don't get the image that epidemic obesity is a sign of the end times. [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 17:52, 24 September 2012 (EDT)
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::Are you claiming that hedonism is not a major cause for obesity? If so, why? Is the Christian conservative Chuck Norris wrong about obesity primarily being caused by hedonism? See: [[Chuck Norris on the topic of obesity]] If so, why? [[User:Conservative|Conservative]] 18:29, 24 September 2012 (EDT)
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:::AugustO, I reread your criticism. It was valid. I removed the material. Thanks. [[User:Conservative|Conservative]] ([[User talk:Conservative|talk]]) 23:46, 13 November 2016 (EST)
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::::Has anyone in your collective gained weight lately ;-) ? No, seriously, thanks - perhaps you can take a look at the other points I've made over the last five years on this talk-page.... --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 07:33, 20 November 2016 (EST)
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Your welcome. Second, I don't think me being a mediator between you and the owner of the website would change matters significantly. [[User:Conservative|Conservative]] ([[User talk:Conservative|talk]]) 12:00, 20 November 2016 (EST)
 +
:I'm just happy that you have changed your mind and hope that it wasn't for the last time... --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 14:18, 20 November 2016 (EST)
  
::: As to your comment that "I think that showing foreknowledge of a phenomenon should be distinguished from merely documenting an instance of it," that's not the approach taken by the Nobel Prize committee. It recognizes the discovery of phenomena (such as cosmic background radiation) regardless of whether the scientists understand its theoretical basis. Obviously many people refuse to read the Bible and thus miss out on the benefit of its foreknowledge. Had scientists carefully studied the walking on water with an open mind, then it may not have taken 1900 years before they recognized the existence of wave-particle duality.  Ditto for many other phenomena.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 19:30, 27 September 2010 (EDT)
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== Seriously disappointed... ==
  
== Wave particle Duality ==
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@Aschlafly. Unfortunately, I found your last edit to this article to be completely absurd. You added the following: "''A storm developed over the water while Jesus slept (i.e., chaos develops when God is not observing), and it was Jesus's awaking to observe it that calmed the storm.''"
  
I have to disagree that the Bible passage that is included describes wave-particle duality, and therefore that this is scientific foreknowledge. The sentence "Particles are subject to gravity; waves are not." is not completely true, as sources of high gravity can affect waves. This, though is not my real concern.
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"(...when God is not observing)"!? What sort of arrogant foolishness of man is this? The Almighty God is [[omnipotent]] and omnipresent in His revealed form! There is NOTHING that happens without His observation! Your edit seems to deny the [[Holy Trinity]]. Yet, even worse, casts Jesus down to the level of Fallen Man (who can be easily mistaken upon awakening from sleep). I hope you can find my knee-jerk reaction to be proven wrong. --[[User:DonnyC|DonnyC]] 05:36, 1 February 2013 (EST)
  
My main concern is that, for Jesus to act like a wave, he would have to have been moving very fast. Using the De Broglie Theory of Matter, <math></math>λ=h/p
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== when it quotes the devil, which is the word for chaos ==
where  λ is the wavelenght, h is Planck constant (ie, 6.63*10<sup>-34</sup>) and p is momentum (p=mv). Using that equation and some assumptions, Mass of about 70kg, 2ms<sup>-1</sup> walking speed (average walking speed is about 1 - 1.5 ms<sup>-1</sup>), this would give a wavelenght that is undetectable to human beings (~4.735*10<sup>-36</sup>), especially without modern equipment.
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However, it would be possible for it to happen if the water had properties like that of custard. But as I said at the start, I do not think this is a piece of scienctific foreknowledge. If I am completely honest, it seems more like an attempt to make sciencetific theories appear to have been shown in the bible.
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I don't know a thing about quantum mechanics but I know "devil" is not the word for "chaos". It comes from "diabalos", which is Greek for "slanderer". Satan certainly works to create chaos and turmoil in our lives but that is not what devil means. I would try to make your edit better without this part of the statement but I don't know anything about the science you are talking about. [[User:NKeaton|Nate]] 22:58, 28 February 2013 (EST)
  
On a completely differnet point, the stars being unnumerable, I feel that any person at that time, that looked up to the sky at night could be able to make the assumption that the stars are unnumerable. Just because science hasn't confirmed something, doesn't mean it is not true. Science probably was unable to confirm something because the technology was not present at teh time. [[User:Griffirg|Griffirg]] 14:24, 27 September 2010 (EDT)
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:We have an entry on [[devil]], and I should have linked to it. My Merriam Webster Collegiate's dictionary says its first etymological meaning is "to throw across."--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:08, 28 February 2013 (EST)
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::Interesting definition. I see that from a Greek concordance that those words are there in the definition in English but it looks like your translation is pretty loose. http://biblesuite.com/greek/1228.htm The Biblical use means "slander" and never "chaos" as far as I can tell looking at Strong's. Nate. [[User:NKeaton|Nate]] 23:55, 28 February 2013 (EST)
  
: Griffirg, your spelling is atrocious.  As to your basic point, waves can take on many different forms.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 21:20, 27 September 2010 (EDT)
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:::Strong's and older translations tend to prefer philosophical meanings of words, when today a more scientific connotation can be more informative.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 00:38, 1 March 2013 (EST)
:: As for the stars, reasonable people at that time thought that there were just some 2,000 stars. The 6,000 stars was an extrapolation, including unseen stars in the Southern Hemisphere. I came across this 2,000-stars number some time ago, probably in [[Hyginus]]'s Astronomica. In Hyginus, the Milky Way is ''not'' formed by stars - see the last chapter. [[User:Sunda62|Sunda62]] 14:08, 29 September 2010 (EDT)
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::::But why do you say that? The concordance tracks the meaning of the Greek word as it is used in the Bible. There is no scientific connotation. Diabolos means "slanderer". That is what Satan is! The Defamer. [[User:NKeaton|Nate]] 00:53, 1 March 2013 (EST)
  
== Lifespan ==
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:::::You raise an interesting issue.  I'll think about this further and do some more research.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 00:56, 1 March 2013 (EST)
  
The deletion of material was revertedThe deletion was of more insights than the comment could justifyPlease discuss here if anyone wants to defend the deletion.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 09:50, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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::::::διαβάλλω literally means this: "to throw across." Its etymology is clear, being a combination of διά (meaning through or between) and βάλλω (which means "to throw")Strong's is not precise enough here, and this illustrates the benefits of looking again at how words are being translated.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 22:06, 1 March 2013 (EST)
  
:Jeanne Calment lived to be 122, but obviously she was a woman, so I'm not sure if that point even matters. Also, Shigechiyo Izumi's age was disputed, and research after his death claims that he actually died at the ripe old age of 105, which is still impressive. [[User:JaneX|JaneX]] 11:05, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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Andrew Schlafly, you have a history [[Talk:Idou|of inventing new meanings and translations when it pleases you]]. If you take out your [http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=%CE%B4%CE%B9%CE%B1%CE%B2%CE%AC%CE%BB%CE%BB%CF%89la=greek#lexicon Liddell-Scott], you'll find that '''neither διάβόλος nor διαβάλλω have anything to do with chaos or disorder'''. Yes, διαβάλλω is contracted from διά and βάλλω and it means "to throw or carry over or across", but it is literally used to describe a move in wrestling or "to pass over, cross". So it is generally used to describe the '''throw of a single item''', e.g. your opponent when wrestling or yourself (used reflexively as "to cross") - that's not how one creates chaos". Figuratively, it means "to attack a man's character, calumniate", "to speak or state slanderously", "deceive by false accounts", etc. To stress my (and Liddell's and Scott's point): '''διαβάλλω does not mean ''to create chaos'', it has nothing to do with disorder.''' διάβόλος is a slanderer, '''διάβόλος doesn't mean creator of chaos.''' There is no evidence that it is even used literally in the sense of someone passing, etc.! As with  ἰδού, I doubt that you have a shred of evidence (and even less a scholarly source) to redefine nearly 3000 years of usage of this words... --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 09:20, 3 March 2013 (EST)
  
:: Thanks for the info, but the underlying point remains the same. I think Izumi's age is recognized by at least one authority to have been 120 years old.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 11:18, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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This all seems to be rather missing the point. If Luke 4.6 is a reference to uncertainty at the quantum level, then it is most certainly a figurative reference. But isn't the viewpoint of this blog that the Bible should be interpreted literally? --[[User:DHouser|DHouser]] 10:13, 9 May 2013 (EDT)
  
::: What would it mean for Biblical scientific foreknowledge if a man lives to 121?  Do you suggest that this cannot possibly occur, in accordance with the passage from Genesis? --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 11:24, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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:To repeat my point: διαβάλλω doesn't mean ''throw over'', ''topple'', or ''overturn''  (like ἀνατροπεύς). It has nothing to do with chaos. No one but Andrew Schlafly has ever connected this word to chaos. --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 14:36, 13 March 2016 (EDT)
  
:::: Well, for starters, it hasn't happened in modern timesSo the question is a bit like asking what a mathematician would say if someone proved 2+2=5.
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==Hubris of Man==
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I find [http://conservapedia.com/index.php?title=Biblical_scientific_foreknowledge&action=historysubmit&diff=1064278&oldid=1064268 this edit] to be rather troubling.  It is important to note that there are many acts of devine intervention or power described in the Bible, that will always be beyond human technology.  While it is nice to observe that some items described in the Bible foresaw subsequent technological developments, the Bible does not predict that '''all''' things described in it will ultimately become possible through advances in human technologyNor is it valid to re-translate the Bible to add technological predictions.  Finally, if the human population of the earth grows faster than the ability to produce food, as a matter of mathematics and logic, a point will be reached in the future when the population will exceed the ability of the earth to feed it. This is not a liberal vs. conservative issue, just mathematics.  While birth control and the AIDS epidemic have trimmed the population growth curve, the problem exists over the very long term. Let's show some humility and acknowledge the limitations of human technology.  Man should not aspire to hold all of the powers of God. 14:16, 18 August 2013 (EDT)
  
:::: Beyond that, as in the math example, I'd look for possible explanations ... such as human error.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 12:01, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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:The fallacy is in the "if": "if the human population of the earth grows faster than the ability to produce food."  This "if" has never occurred and never would occur, because man has always been able to produce more than he needs to consume.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 16:02, 18 August 2013 (EDT)
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::Thank you for your response. First, Robert Malthus wrote ''An Essay on the Principle of Population'' (1798), one of the earliest and most influential books on population. He correctly predicted exponential population growth.  People feared that eventually, the maximum ability of the Earth to sustain a population would be reached.  Admittedly, population growth has been tempered due to birth control and the AIDS epidemic, but at some point growth will accelerate and one can foresee the limit eventually being reached even with further technological advances.  I don't see the Bible contradicting that result, and the article does not present a fair picture of the topic. Second, the Bible describes many miraculous things that were beyond human technology at the time it was written. Some could inspire technological advances, but other miracles described in the Bible will always be beyond human technology (e.g., the parting of the Red Sea.) I believe the article should show some humility and acknowledge the limitations of human technology. Man should not aspire to hold all of the powers of God. Thanks, [[User:Wschact|Wschact]] 20:21, 18 August 2013 (EDT)
  
::::: But if it were to happen in the future, and there was incontrovertible evidence of this lifespan, would a logical person be forced to reject the Bible?  I think the answer is yes.  I agree that this is akin to 2+2=5, but it is an important point to consider -- it is a scientifically testable prediction from the Bible, foreknowledge at its purest.  Of course we as Christians know the result in advance, but perhaps this will convince some atheists. --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 12:17, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
 
  
:::::: Lance, you seem to be applying a higher [[double standard]] to the Bible than you do to math and science, both of which make predictions that for a variety of reasons (including human error) may encounter exceptions. No one would immediately throw out '''''all''''' of math or science because of merely one unexplained anomaly.  Moreover, the anomaly you propose ''does not exist''.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 13:07, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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==Distance of Oldest Star to Earth==
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How can the source be trusted? It says the oldest star is 13.7 billion years old and implies that stars have been observed farther away, so this contradicts the article's assertion that creation occurred 6,000 years ago. How can the distance of the oldest star be taken as fact but other inconvenient facts be ignored? --[[User:Randall7|Randall7]] 17:10, 22 February 2014 (EST)
  
:::::: In math, one exception disproves a theorem.  But I agree that this isn't the case in science.  So maybe I should rework my question: "If lifespans over 120 years become commonplace in the future, must a logical person reject the Bible?"  A scientific theory admitting many exceptions would be rejected.  I am curious about your answer; again, mine is "yes".  But of course I do not believe that this could ever happen.
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:Articles are cited here for their facts, not for any additional liberal speculation or spin that is includedThere is no atheistic reason to claim 6,000 light-years away if it were not trueThe confirmation of the [[Bible]] by a scientific culture that tends to be atheistic in outlook is remarkable.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 19:12, 22 February 2014 (EST)
:::::: True, this anomaly ''does not exist''.  But, for an atheist, there is no obvious reason that it shouldn't: this is an illustration of the predictive power of the BibleConsidering counterfactual situations is an important part of any logical thinking, and I see no reason that we can't analyze the possibility.
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:::::: I believe that this page would be considerably strengthened if it made specific and falsifiable claims about science not yet discoveredOne such would be the assertion that typical human lifespans will never exceed 120 years.  Are there any other instances of specific Biblical foreknowledge you can suggest which deal with topics still not understood by science today?  (And whose falsity, though counterfactual, would provide a valid [[Counterexamples to the Bible|counterexample to the Bible]])  Such claims would prove without question the validity of the Bible to atheists who do not yet accept this. --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 13:26, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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Didn't Moses live to be several hundred years old? If so that would be a biblical inconsistency--[[User:CainR|CainR]] 13:31, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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'''''Response to Lance and Cain''''': science isn't about speculation or "what if."  It's about observation.  This is a scientific entry, so it focuses on what is predicted and what is observed.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 14:50, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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::Thanks for rephrasing that for me. [[User:BarrySM|BarrySM]] 10:28, 23 February 2014 (EST)
  
:Point taken. Still, can we make some new specific predictions, based on the Bible, dealing with something not yet discovered by secular science?  This would be more impressive than pointing out examples in hindsight.
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:::In all seriousness, though... The article is talking about the ''oldest'' star, not the ''farthest'' star. If we were citing it to mean that ''no'' star is farther than 6,000 light-years, then the source simply doesn't hold up. And if the source is not being cited for that reason, then the statement has no grounds. Could you further clarify, please? [[User:JSchwartz|JSchwartz]] 20:48, 23 February 2014 (EST)
:Perhaps it is only because of the timidity of earlier theologians towards making scientific predictions that quantum mechanics was not developed in the 7th or 8th century!  The Biblical evidence for this subject is impressive.  Let us not make this mistake again! --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 15:01, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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::One suggestion -- CP has pointed out numerous flaws in the theory of relativity. Can we leverage Bible scientific foreknowledge (BSF) to find a superior replacement for Newtonian mechanics? Have any such BSF-inspired physical theories been posited before? --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 15:06, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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:::Your suggestion about BSF-inspired theories is superb.  Indeed, this is how several key scientists made breakthrough discoveries in the pastPlease feel free to create a new entry in pursuit of your suggestion.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 15:12, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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::::The age of the universe is best estimated by looking at the oldest star, not a younger oneClaims of enormous distances for younger stars are disproven by the [[horizon problem]].--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:17, 23 February 2014 (EST)
  
::::I was the one who originally removed the section, because the Bible gives several examples of individuals living longer than 120 years; Noah lived until 950, for example. I can provide citations to Biblical passages if needed; I guess I'm confused as to why this is controversial. --[[User:WillS|WillS]] 21:26, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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== Negative Numbers ==
  
:::::And Jesus lives forever.  Your saintly exceptions don't disprove the rule, and certainly don't justify your removal of the biblical foreknowledge about average lifespan of man, and the average lifespan of a good-living man.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 21:48, 4 October 2010 (EDT)
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Sorry for my misunderstanding, but how do any of the Bible passages cited provide examples of negative numbers, especially within multiplication? If we could provide that citation in-article, it would also improve the quality. [[User:JSchwartz|JSchwartz]] 20:51, 23 February 2014 (EST)
  
::::::Ok, I see your point; God can obviously intervene to 'break the rules,' so Noah, Shem, and so on don't really count. Thanks for taking the time to explain, and I apologize for making an unwarranted deletion.--[[User:WillS|WillS]] 03:36, 5 October 2010 (EDT)
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== Malthusianism and the economics of plenty ==
  
::::::: I want to point out that if you carefully study the passage which refers to the 120 year lifespan (Genesis chapter 6), it definitely implies that until that moment in history, human lifespan could have been longer, so it's no wonder than in Genesis 1-5 we read about people living much longer. Also, the "120" is not necessarily precise, much like many other numbers in the Bible (possibly due to rounding). --[[User:TeacherEd|TeacherEd]] 20:34, 5 October 2010 (EDT)
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William Bradford's writing in his diary provides a good example of God's powers and use of conservative economics,(Bradford writes about his thankfulness for God's wisdom in that very way almost word for word) but its not the examples from the Old/New Testament as written about in the article. [[User:Progressingamerica|Progressingamerica]] ([[User talk:Progressingamerica|talk]]) 10:57, 19 September 2015 (EDT)
  
:::::::: Good point.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 01:50, 6 October 2010 (EDT)
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:Thanks for improving the citation. Do you have any additional edits you'd like to make on this particular point?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 11:22, 19 September 2015 (EDT)
  
Andy, Jesus living forever doesn't break the 120years limit for several reasons, the simplest being the 'forever' part is in heaven, and only Earth years count, otherwise all who go to Heaven, and hence living forever, would also break the 120year limit. Also, Shigechiyo Izumi lived to be older than 120 years, living to be 120 years AND 237 days, hence, if the 120 years is a solid-limit (unlike TeacherEd's suggestion), then he would have broken the rule. And Jeanne Calment lived to be 122, so how does this not contradict the 120year limit? And also, I heard of a different interpretation to the passage mentioning the 120 year limit. When the Bible says "No one will live for more than 120 years", it could be referring to the Flood, which ocurred 120 years later, and that (with the exception of Noah's family), no one lived for another 120 years. - [[User:JamesCA|JamesCA]] 09:27, 22 October 2011 (EDT)
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::Not at the moment, no.  The Bradford example could be outside of the scope of the article to begin with, once better citations can be introduced. I had it in mind as a placeholder in the context of the prior reverted edit. [[User:Progressingamerica|Progressingamerica]] ([[User talk:Progressingamerica|talk]]) 11:52, 19 September 2015 (EDT)
  
== End of the world edit ==
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== Water on Mars ==
  
Reversion explained: this entry is about observation (science), so speculation about an end of the world doesn't work here.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 00:04, 8 October 2010 (EDT)
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It occurs to me that, among all the hullabaloo about water on Mars, it would be worthwhile to point out that water beyond Earth is old news to Christians; the Bible clearly established the existence of the "waters above" long before astronomers even thought about hypothesizing it...and, indeed, before there was even a formal discipline of astronomy!  --[[User:Benp|Benp]] ([[User talk:Benp|talk]]) 18:32, 28 September 2015 (EDT)
  
== Miracles ==
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:Excellent point.  We need to add this somewhere in the entry itself.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 20:55, 28 September 2015 (EDT)
  
God created the heavens and the earth. He created the laws of nature to regulate his creation and constrain the activities of man. For it is only the one true God himself who can transgress the laws of nature. God manifests his omnipotent being through miracles which defy naturalistic explanation. To seek materialistic explanations for miracles is to deny God, undermine faith and encourage atheism. [[User:AmandaBunting|AmandaBunting]] 17:09, 11 November 2010 (EST)
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== Embarrassing Error ==
  
: Thanks for your view, but miracles are probably best translated as "signs". They do not conflict with nature, but instead provide a window into its true underlying basis.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 01:02, 12 November 2010 (EST)
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Andy, you write in an edit comment:
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{{cquote|[Biblical scientific foreknowledge] guides a more precise translation of verses that describe scientific-related events, such as Jesus's Calming the Storm}}
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... and you even link to the your [[Essay:Calming the Storm]]. You are still ignoring the embarrassing error in this essay, i.e., that your interpretation of the text depends on your ignorance of the declination of the verb λέγω! See [[Talk:Essay:Calming the Storm]]. Your "more precise translation" is just a joke...
  
::That's an interesting suggestion -- never heard anything like it before.  I don't buy it without some more evidence.  If you want to use this translation you need a good case that ''every'' miracle has some kind of physical explanation.  I am curious what you would suggest as naturalistic explanations for these "signs":
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Ignorance is not always bliss, sometimes it makes you just looking stupid! --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 16:55, 9 March 2016 (EST)
* Calming the storm (Mark 4:35 etc). 
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:Perhaps foreshadows knowledge of chaos theory, as Jesus arranges an inverse butterfly effect?  By moving his pinky in just the right way he sets off air currents which calm the winds.
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* Various healing and resurrection miracles.
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:This has to be some kind of advanced medical technology -- any more specific suggestion?  Nanobots?
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* Coin in the fish's mouth (Matthew 17:24).
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:I've got nothing on this one. 
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* Cursing the fig tree (Mark 11:12)
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:I am not aware of any plant pathogens which act this quickly.
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We must also explain miracles performed by others.  For example:
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* Parting the Red Sea
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:What is the physics here?  I am curious about your suggestions for all of these events, as I have always understood miracles as being outside the realm of scientific explanation. --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 13:47, 12 November 2010 (EST)
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:: [[Essay:Quantifying Openmindedness|Closemindedness]] against the [[Bible]] has impeded the advancement of science for thousands of years.  Should it have really taken 1900 years to realize that [[leprosy]] is usually not contagious???  There's only one reason: many people close their mind to the insights of the Bible.  Then open-minded folks like [[Isaac Newton]], who accepted that the Bible is right, have to move mountains to persuade them.
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== Calming the Storm ==
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Andy wants us to believe that it was the observation of the storm which calmed it, and that Jesus didn't speak. He writes:
  
:: Nearly all of your examples above represent the triumph of order over disorder, which science discovered in the 20th century in the effect of the observer in bringing order to the chaotic wave functionFor example, [[Jesus]]'s calming of the storm by observing it is the same effect as the collapse of the [[quantum mechanics|quantum mechanical]] wave function upon observation.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 18:53, 12 November 2010 (EST)
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{{cquote|A storm developed over the water while Jesus slept (i.e., chaos develops when God is not observing), and it was Jesus' awaking to observe it that calmed the stormThis famous [[Essay:Calming the Storm|calming of the storm]] is typically translated as the result of a "rebuke" by [[Jesus]] of the bad weather.  But a closer look at the Greek reveals that the key term means "judge" rather than "rebuke", and thus it was the act of Jesus observing the chaos that caused it to "collapse" into an orderly state, similar to the effect of observing a wave function.}}
  
:::Sure, maybe it is the same effect in some sense.  But it sounds like you want what have normally been translated as "miracles" to be understood rather as "signs", events which, while remarkable, nonetheless take place within the confines of the usual laws of physics.  Just because something leads to "greater order" doesn't mean it's actually physically possible: there must be some specific physical explanation for the calming of the storm, otherwise it is still a miracle. 
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and at [[Essay:Calming the Storm]] he says:
:::The case of cursing the fig tree deserves particular attention, I think, because to my mind Jesus actually ''decreases'' order by killing the tree.  I have previously understood this miracle as a demonstration of the divinity of Jesus because of his control over nature.  How should this event be understood as a "sign"?
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:::I am intrigued by your suggestion and approach it with an open mind.  But without a specific naturalistic interpretation, a miracle is still a miracle, whether it increases order or not.  If a supernatural explanation is still required I fail to understand why it should be called a "sign". --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 20:01, 12 November 2010 (EST)
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::::"Sign" is a more customary translation than "miracle".  Beyond that, your criticism displays a [[double standard]]: why don't you require the same "physical explanation" before accepting [[quantum mechanics]]?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 20:14, 12 November 2010 (EST)
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{{cquote|In the Mark verse above, traditional translations insert the word "said" as though Jesus caused the calming by verbally ordering the sea to be still. But "λέγω" -- the Greek term used for said in some versions -- does not appear in the Greek above, and where it does appear in Greek versions its real meaning is to "lay", to "cause to lie down," or to "put to sleep." It only has a connotation of speaking when used in a context of verbal communication (as in putting one word with another), '''which is not the case here'''. }}
  
:::::Thank you for the clarifications.  Sorry for sidetracking this discussion -- I hope AmandaBunting will return to share her insights! --[[User:LanceS|LanceS]] 20:56, 12 November 2010 (EST)
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Unfortunately, this is just wrong. Mark's verse contains the words:
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{{cquote|εἶπεν τῇ θαλάσσῃ Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο.}}
  
::::::I admit that the cursing of the fig tree remains a mystery; it is unlike the other signs. I will look again at the [[KJV]], and the [[Conservative Bible Project]] rendition.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:32, 12 November 2010 (EST)
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*εἶπεν is a conjugate form of λέγω, in fact, it is 3rd person singular aorist active indicative. The obvious translation is "He said", or "He commanded". But perhaps He spoke to Himself?
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*No, He didn't: He addressed the sea (θάλασσα) directly, indicated by τῇ θαλάσσῃ, the dative of this feminine noun. But perhaps it was a silent exchange?
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*No, it wasn't: Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο is a command, imperative versions of the words Σιώπα ("silence") and φιμόω ("to muzzle"). This is direct speech: Σιώπα means "Silence!" and  "πεφίμωσο" means "Be muzzled!"
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Putting this all together we get:
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{{cquote|He commanded the sea: "Silence! Be quite!}}
  
::If miracles are simply "signs" that do not conflict with the laws of nature and a window into their true underlying basis, then they are clearly phenomenon that have not yet been adequately explained by science but may be in the future, as the understanding of the laws of nature advances.
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Andy's most basic mistake is that he didn't spot that εἶπεν is a form of the verb λέγω. Additionally, he didn't recognize the imperatives Σιώπα and πεφίμωσο. Or the dative, of θάλασσα... You have to make  rookie mistakes in just five words to get read of the ''connotation of speaking''...
  
::Explaining miracles as “signs” is an interesting insight, the comments to Luke 11:16 & 29 in the [[Conservative Bible Project|Conservapedia Bible]] translation (clearly the best contemporary modern English version because it accurately captures the original intent unlike other versions marred by [[liberal]] translation distortions) providing further clarification. However, ‘mighty works’ or ’work’ in the KJV (Matthew 13:58, 14:2, Luke 10:13, John  7:21, 15:24) is translated as ‘miracles’,  the KJV ‘sign’ (Luke 11:16) is translated as ‘miracle’, ‘miracle’ occurs in both the KJV and the Conservapedia Bible translation (Luke 23:8 , John :2:11, 2:23, 3:2, 4:54, 6:2, 6:14, 6:26, 7:31, 9:16, 10:41, 11:47, 12;18, 12:37) and the KJV (John 4:48) ‘signs and wonders’  is translated as ‘ miracles and signs’.
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--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 09:24, 10 March 2016 (EST)
  
::Nevertheless, the feeding of five thousand people with a few loaves and fishes is clearly not normally possible. The laws of nature clearly show that water cannot be turned into wine any more than lead can be turned into gold and people are not able to walk on water. Jesus could perform such miracles because of the power God invested in him. Furthermore, the intense white, whiter than any bleach, radiant glow or ‘halo’ of Jesus and his clothing displays his Godliness and is not of natural origin. By explaining away those miracles as a skillful application of scientific foreknowledge reduces Jesus to the status of a gifted conjuror in possession of a collection of impressive party tricks. That is the kind of ‘logic’ atheists use to undermine the status of Jesus as the son of God.
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:August, Mark wasn't there. Jesus did not speak aloud to a storm. He silently commanded it by observing it. Your translation is too literal to the point of missing the meaning, and ignoring the physics.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 09:44, 10 March 2016 (EST)
::[[User:AmandaBunting|AmandaBunting]] 19:51, 13 November 2010 (EST)
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:::"Conjurer", not "conjuror", and I see sarcasm in your second paragraph that does not help your argument. Why do you resist the position often taken by the [[KJV]], that Jesus's works were signs rather than "miracles"?  Truth does not have exceptions, and neither does logic. The concept that God breaks laws from time to time is more problematic than the obvious truth that man has little understanding of nature to this day.
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::Really, that's your argument? Mark made stuff up? Therefore, "I, Andy Schlafly, know better than Mark the Evangelist, because Mark wasn't there?" Is this just hubris? Delusion? This is really a low-point for the CBP...
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::My translation is literal only as it is factual, and not just a mere invention. Grammar is important, you know...
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::--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 10:26, 10 March 2016 (EST)
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::We still read the utterly silly sentence '''''But "λέγω" -- the Greek term used for said in some versions -- does not appear in the Greek above,''''' at [[Essay:Calming the Storm]] - showing everybody with a modest knowledge of Greek that you, Andy, lack the most basic understanding of this language. And you still have the audacity to claim that you are able to see the "meaning" of a verse while you are not able to recognize the words in it! That is just preposterous. --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 15:19, 10 March 2016 (EST)
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:::I said it in the edit summary, and it still applies here, so I might as well say it: Augusto, your criticism is harsh and doesn't even refute Andy's assertions.  [[User:VargasMilan|VargasMilan]] ([[User talk:VargasMilan|talk]]) 18:37, 10 March 2016 (EST)
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::::It seems that one needs a little Greek to see my point... --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 18:58, 10 March 2016 (EST)
  
:::I doubt [[Isaac Newton]] would have insisted that something is impossible under the laws of nature as you doDo you think you are better qualified than Newton to make such statements?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 21:38, 13 November 2010 (EST)
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:::::August, here as in other discussions on translation, you adhere to an overly literal and narrow view of the Greek, without fully considering the context, the physics, and ordinary literary tools of abstractionFor example, if you were translating a Greek equivalent of the phrase "a wake-up call," would you insist that could only mean that someone was awoken from sleep by an actual call?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 19:04, 10 March 2016 (EST)
  
::I consider miracles to be acts that only God can perform, which usually transgress the laws of nature. I agree that miracles are 'signs', but a sign need not always be a miracle. Miracles are amongst the signs that God uses to point to Himself. As such, God's intervention through 'signs' does not necessarily have to break the laws of nature. The miracles of Jesus are a visible manifestation of divine power, a wonder is an awe-inspiring spectacle and a sign is an instructive revelation about God, which may also be in the form of a miracle or wonder.
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:::::As I previously explained above, λέγω does not mean merely to "say", but also means to "think" or to "mean" or even (originally) to "put to sleep."  Moreover, Greek does not use quotation marks at all, so why would you insist on them in English?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 19:10, 10 March 2016 (EST)
  
::::"He [God] is eternal and infinite, omnipotent and omniscient; that is, his duration reaches from eternity to eternity; his presence from infinity to infinity; he governs all things, and knows all things that are or can be done [...] we reverence and adore him on account of his dominion, for we adore him as servants; and a god without dominion, providence, and final causes is nothing else but Fate and Nature."
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(EC)
::::(Sir Issac Newton, Principia mathematica 1687)
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::::::Before you consider the abstract, you have to understand the concrete. Without a decent foundation, a building will falter. You don't have the basic knowledge, so any of your contributions to the CBT is just guess-work based on ominous insights.
::[[User:AmandaBunting|AmandaBunting]] 23:26, 13 November 2010 (EST)
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::::::If I said that the verb "to be" is not used in the phrase "It was the lark", would you believe any translation of this sentence into another language which I proposed? No, of course not. Any of my Shakespeare translations would by dubious - even if I claimed that I know best what the bard ''really'' meant.
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::::::--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 19:20, 10 March 2016 (EST)
  
::::: I don't see the point of claiming that miracles "transgress the laws of nature."  Your quote from Newton doesn't support that view; quite the contrary, Newton is saying that God "knows all things that are or can be done."  This suggests that what are called miracles are illustrations of what can be done ... if and when our [[faith]] is stronger.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 10:00, 14 November 2010 (EST)
 
  
== What is not foreknowledge. ==
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To refresh your memory:
  
'''Quantum Mechanics'''
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{|style="background:lightgrey"
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|
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'''[[Talk:Gospel_of_Mark_(Translated)/Archive_1#Stylistic_standards|Stylistic standards]]'''
  
It seems that there is a very basic misunderstanding of Quantum Mechanics on this page. I will try and explain it as simply as I can.
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I was thinking about how I might modernize the language, and some questions occurred to me.
If something works at subatomic and atomic levels, (i.e. particles), it does not mean that a system of particles ( i.e. a body, or a liquid) will also act in this fashion. That idea will be fundamental in my explaining of why each  post in the Quantum Mechanics subsection, is not right. I will also address some other points.
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'''Observation of Wave function'''
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Firstly, should speech use quotation marks, which came into use long after the KJV?
As far as I'm aware, wine has a different cocktail of particles in it to water. Water being mainly Hydrogen and Oxygen, while wine has hydro-carbons in the form of alcohol, and about 7% other chemicals. Now I'm well aware that the chemical composition of the substances is not Quantum Mechanics, but it is important for understanding why the 'foreknowledge' falls down. Water and Wine are two different substances. On its own, water will not be able to turn into wine, whether or not it is observed. The last problem is one which I addressed at the start, that is the Wave function collapse, supported by observation, is something was used in single ONE ON ONE PARTICLE INTERACTIONS, from my nowhere near complete grasp of it. I may be wrong in that last statement, but that doesn't mean I am wrong in what I'm saying. If it were shown that water could turn into wine by this method then I will accept it, but as far as I'm aware, that has not happened yet.
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e.g.
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* And a voice came from heaven declaring, You are my beloved Son whom I love dearly.  
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would become:
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* And a voice came from heaven declaring, "You are my beloved Son whom I love dearly."
  
'''Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle'''
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Secondly, is it necessary to begin as many verses with "And" as the KJV?  Some verses clearly only comprise a portion of a sentence, and it seems to me that "Jesus appeared from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized by John in the Jordan River" is much more fluid than "And then Jesus appeared from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized by John in the Jordan River," but loses no meaning. [[User:DouglasA|DouglasA]] 18:18, 18 August 2009 (EDT)
Yet again it is being assumed in this section that the Physics of the very small apple to the physics of the larger scales. This is not true (yet, though theoretical physicists are looking to unify the last fundamental force (gravity) to quantum mechanics, but that is something different altogether). Then there is the fact that the first given passage could not have been observed (as no human was present at that time, and it probably didn't happen that way, but that is a different argument and only my, and many respected scientists, and many others, views). The second passage shows more common sense than a foreknowledge to the uncertainty principle.
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'''Wave Particle Duality'''
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:Both of your points are superb.  I'm learning myself:  I did not realize that quotation marks came into use only after the [[KJV]].
I addressed this in my first post, but Andy Schlafly called it basic, and said there are other types of waves. Since I know have time to formulate a proper reply. First of all the point I made is not basic, it is a fundamental problem with your theory, as  for a PARTICLE of mass 70kg , moving at speed 2ms-1,  the wavelength would have to be ~4.735*10-36, no matter what type of wave that the particle wasHowever, I did make one other assumption that I did not specify. That assumption was that Jesus was acting like a particle. This I know to be impossible, because Jesus, like every thing larger than a single particle, is a system of particles, thus complicating the matter, because I would have to calculate the average wavelength, using a very conservative estimate on the number of particles, a rough guess on the mass of those particles, go against the uncertainty principle by having to know where the particles began, and their velocities at that point, reasonably accurately. Even with knowledge, the final wavelength would not be observable from certain angles, because he would be a wave, not a system of particles. But  that is too complicating to attempt. The main problem is the same as with the others in this 'Quantum Mechanics' section, that I have already addressed.
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==Second Law of Thermodynamics==
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:Please make your improvements directly on the content page. Well done!--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 18:21, 18 August 2009 (EDT)
In the article it stated the the second law of thermodynamics agrees with assertion in Genesis that "the darkness or chaos in the universe can never overcome the light, or order" Yet the second law states that entropy never decreases it must always be increasing or remain constant for an isolated system. So energy must always move from an area of high energy to an area of low energy. So given an ever expanding universe the total energy density must always be decreasing, therefore the Second Law of Thermodynamics guarantees that darkness and chaos will always overcome light and order over time, which is a direct contradiction of the assertion made in Genesis not a confirmation. Source- Thermodynamic Class every Monday and Wednesday
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|}
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--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 19:39, 10 March 2016 (EST)
  
'''Quantum Tunnelling'''
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===Mark 4:38-41===
Firstly Tunnelling has two 'l's, but that is beside the point, the same fundamental flaw is still happening, and I am getting bored explaining why it is stupid to make that assumption.  
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In the following, I'm using ''context'' and ''grammar'', so this paragraph can be a little bit taxing for someone with a very limited attention span. Please, nevertheless, try to read it carefully - instead of just skimming it...
Now for something completely different (to quote The Flying Circus (Monty Python))
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'''Nature  of Air'''
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The verb <span style="color:red">λέγω</span> is not only used in in Mark 4:39, but in each of the verses 4:38 - 4:41. Let's have a look at these verses:
This, to me, seems more like Job describing the force of the wind, rather than the fact that air has mass (completely different to weight, as weight is acceleration due to gravity, and a force). This passage is also defining wind, not air, so it can't really be claimed that it is foreknowledge of air having a mass.
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*Mark 4:38
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<span style="color:orange">καὶ αὐτὸς ἦν ἐν τῇ πρύμνῃ ἐπὶ τὸ προσκεφάλαιον καθεύδων· καὶ ἐγείρουσιν αὐτὸν καὶ <span style="color:red">λέγουσιν</span> αὐτῷ</span> <span style="color:lightblue"><span style="color:darkblue">Διδάσκαλε</span>, οὐ μέλει σοι ὅτι <span style="color:blue">ἀπολλύμεθα;</span></span>
  
'''Water Cycle'''
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There is the main text (orange/red), written in the third person as seen by a narrator. Here we find <span style="color:red">λέγουσιν</span>, "(they) say". How do we know that they - i.e., the disciples - say something, and not only think it? Well, this part is followed by direct speech (blue). The most obvious indicator for this switch is <span style="color:darkblue">Διδάσκαλε</span>, unambiguously the vocative (masculine, singular) of διδάσκαλος, ου, ὁ "teacher". The vocative is used to address someone directly, not to think about someone. Another indicator for direct speech is the verb <span style="color:blue">ἀπολλύμεθα;</span>. It's in the first person plural, so the perspective has changed. Above the absence of quotation marks in Koine Greek was mentioned - Greek writers used techniques like those which I just talked about to show the difference between the main text and direct speech...
I am more inclined to believe that the passages (which say basically that it rains when there are clouds) is observation based due to the fact that the chance of it starting to rain when there are no clouds is very low, but when it does rain, there are clouds. Now it doesn’t take take someone who is a genius (or divinely inspired) to come to the conclusion that clouds hold water (this isn't  completely true as clouds are made up of mainly (totally?) water. As for the bit about the water coming from the sea, that would be another reasonable, and logical, conclusion, as the largest bodies of water are seas and oceans.
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*Mark 4:40
'''
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<span style="color:orange">καὶ <span style="color:red">εἶπεν</span> αὐτοῖς</span> <span style="color:lightblue">Τί δειλοί <span style="color:blue">ἐστε</span>; οὔπω <span style="color:blue">ἔχετε</span> πίστιν;</span>
Stellar proper movement'''
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Just because it happens, doesn't mean that God must be doing it. I am sure that science can explain it now, but, as it says in the section, it is a challenge, not something that was observed, (may be wrong on that, but if I am, at the time of writing this I was not aware otherwise). I would be willing to assume that the questions (challenges) were hypothetical, and not actually observed at that time.
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'''Darkness and Unexplained Ripples in Cosmic Background Radiation'''
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<span style="color:red">εἶπεν</span> (the same form of <span style="color:red">λέγω</span> as in Mark 4:39...) is the verb in the main text (red/orange): "He said". Again, there is no doubt that here something is ''said'' and not just ''thought'', as again, direct speech (blue) is following, indicated by Τί, which is used as a question word, and the change of person and grammatical number of the verbs <span style="color:blue">ἐστε</span> and <span style="color:blue">ἔχετε</span>.
First of all, the darkness. This is explained by red-shift, i.e. the original 'explosion' happened so long ago that the visible light from it has red-shifted into the microwave wavelengths (which are still light waves). As for the 'Unexplained Ripples' they are explained, just not accepted by people who have been indoctrinated into believing the bible, and not completely accepted by the whole scientific community (not completely sure, but I think most cosmologists and theoretical physicists accept it, i.e. some of the most intelligent people on earth). However, the theory, is supported by evidence (unlike most of the bible), and does explain most 'problems' with light being so far away, and us being able to see galaxies, which no creationist theory does yet.
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'''Geology'''
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*Mark 4:41
The link doesn't actually specify a global flood, just fast melting parts of the ice caps from previous ice ages (actually one example of said flood in one area of the world) my opinion of the flood is simply there isn't enough water on the world to cover every land mass.
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<span style="color:orange">καὶ ἐφοβήθησαν φόβον μέγαν, καὶ <span style="color:red">ἔλεγον</span> πρὸς ἀλλήλους</span> <span style="color:lightblue">Τίς ἄρα οὗτός <span style="color:blue">ἐστιν</span> ὅτι καὶ ὁ ἄνεμος καὶ ἡ θάλασσα ὑπακούει αὐτῷ;</span>
  
'''Number of stars'''
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Again, the main text is written in a past tense, this times, the direct speech is introduced by <span style="color:red">ἔλεγον</span> "(they) said". Again, the direct speech can be detected as it is phrased as a question in the present tense (<span style="color:blue">ἐστιν</span> "(he) is"). But here is another interesting point: <span style="color:lightblue">ἡ θάλασσα ὑπακούει αὐτῷ</span> means "the sea obeys him", or better "the sea listens to him", as the verb ὑπακούω means "to obey what is heard" - another indicator that Jesus spoke to the sea aloud!
I know I talked about this before, but I'm not sure I explained what I meant properly. I was talking about how it is sometimes easier to assume a number, because there is too many to count on a single night. Now days, if we had to time, we could probably count every single 'Star' in the sky, but most of those stars are actually galaxies. And the longer we expose space telescopes, like the Hubble, on a specific part of space, we can see more galaxies in that area of space (see Hubble ultra deep field). So we can't accurately count the number of actual stars in galaxies, hence it easier to assume that it is innumerable, though not infinite.
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As to the rest of your supposed 'Foreknowledge', my opinion is that it is either so obvious that it was common knowledge, (like I said in my last post, because science hasn't explained something at that time, it doesn't mean it is God's work), or it is people trying to fit science to the bible and vice versa. Simple but my opinion is that science can explain everything we can observe better than the bible, and there isn't any foreknowledge in it.
 
  
I am well aware that this is a Christian site, and that a large number of users believe in the young earth 'Theory' of creation. I however am an atheist (if you didn't work that out, it says a lot), who was willing to help, (see my post on best new conservative words talk page). Unfortunately, I have little patience for people who refuse to use science correctly. Or who make claims about something, without fully understanding the basic principles needed to support that claim (quantum mechanics section).  
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But now for
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*Mark 4:39
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<span style="color:orange">καὶ διεγερθεὶς ἐπετίμησεν τῷ ἀνέμῳ καὶ <span style="color:red">εἶπεν</span> τῇ θαλάσσῃ <span style="color:lightblue">Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο.</span> <span style="color:orange">καὶ ἐκόπασεν ὁ ἄνεμος, καὶ ἐγένετο γαλήνη μεγάλη.</span>
  
You may call me closed minded, you may tell me to open my mind up to the bible, but, now days, a mind that is closed to the bible is better than a mind that is blinded by it. Also in-case you do tell me to open my mind, from the True definitions section of www.newspeakdictionary.com “Open-Minded -. One who vigorously attacks anyone that isn't as closed-minded as themselves.
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Here, the main text (written in aorist, a kind of past tense) encloses <span style="color:lightblue">Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο.</span>. As in the following verse, <span style="color:red">εἶπεν</span> is used: "He said". Or could it really mean "he observed [silently]"? Well, <span style="color:lightblue">Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο.</span> again shows a change of tense to indicate direct speech. As such, both verbs can best be seen as imperatives, i.e., direct commands.  
  
To finish I would like to be removed as an editor on this site, and my account to be deleted, because I do not think I can add any logical input to this site, as it seems to disregard logic, and use the process of doublethink to assume the bible is logically sound, while disregarding and illogical things in it, search the net and you will find them.   [[User:Griffirg|Griffirg]] 14:50, 13 November 2010 (EST)
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It is preposterous to assume that the same construction (someone says to someone: "direct speech") was used in four consecutive verses, and just in one verse it isn't meant to represent spoken words. OTOH, it doesn't make sense to translate <span style="color:red">λέγω</span> as "to observe [silently]" in any of the other three verses. In other words,  Mark wrote "they said" - "he said" - "he said" - "they said", and not "they said" - "he observed" - "he said" - "they said" - the latter would not only have been confusing, but deliberately misleading.  
  
: Griffirg, what is valid at the atomic level is presumptively valid at larger scales also.  Or would you observe an apple falling from a tree and then claim that says nothing about planetary motion?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 18:23, 13 November 2010 (EST)
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But perhaps, Mark got it wrong - as ''he wasn't there'' (do you really want to open this can of worms?) That doesn't give you the liberty to change his text into a version of which you think that it is nearer to the actual truth! That may be, but then it isn't the Gospel according to Mark any longer, it is just "The Word of God How it should be according to Andrew Schlafly"....
:: Mr. Aschlafly, if what is valid at the atomic level is presumptively valid on larger scales, what is your issue with evolution, given the fact that opponents of the theory of evolution seek to polarize the theory into "macro" and "micro" evolution. This is only relevant because many opponents of macro-evolution find no qualm with micro-evolution and actually assert that while the former is suspect, the latter is completely sound in theory. At what point do you draw the line and say that one thing is valid at the microcosm through to the macro-level and another thing is not and how are you qualified to make such a statement? [[User:ReginaldP|ReginaldP]] 16:22, 1 January 2011 (EST)
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:::Once evolution was discredited, [[atheists]] began playing semantics and redefined "evolution" in a meaningless way, to be "change over time."  Faced with semantic game-playing by the atheists, some responded by drawing a distinction between "macro" and "micro".  Semantics was used to respond to semantics.  It's better to recognize and reject falsehoods rather than try to patch them.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 22:10, 1 January 2011 (EST)
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--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 18:08, 11 March 2016 (EST)
  
::::Reginald P, I believe you are confusing extrapolation with specificity: while the same rules apply to an apple as a planet, micro and macro evolution are different tendancies acting on distinct systems within distinct environments. Therefor, you are misapplying logic to achieve misleading readers. -ADW
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The sound you are hearing is me dropping the microphone, followed by two days of silence: I'll edit the article accordingly --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 14:35, 13 March 2016 (EDT)
  
== Would the Dating of Ice Mummy be accurate? ==
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===Need to discuss further on the talk page===
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I'm looking forward to your arguments! You could perhaps take a look at which word the disciples used to describe Jesus's "rebuke"...
  
I'm all for the ice mummy confirming the Great Flood but I thought scientific dating methods were, for the most part, based on flawed assumptions.  Correct me if I'm wrong here, because now that I think of it, fluctuations in the rate of decay may have occurred during the flood and have remained stable since the time of this Ice mummy.
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Or will you use the article as your bully pulpit, ignoring any input by others, insisting that you are right, because you had a special insight? It is hard to ignore the fact that you are still claiming in your [[Essay:Calming the Storm]] that λέγω doesn't appear in Mark's verse, making you the laughing stock of everybody with even a little Greek! --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 18:06, 13 March 2016 (EDT)
  
: I'm not aware of objections to short-term dating methodologies, such as 5300 years.  A difference in decay rates before the [[Great Flood]] compared with afterward would not affect the accuracy of measuring the age of someone frozen as part of the Great Flood.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 20:20, 31 December 2010 (EST)
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''a closer look at the Greek reveals that the key term does not necessarily mean a spoken "rebuke"; it was the act of Jesus observing the chaos that caused it to "collapse" into an orderly state, similar to the effect of observing a wave function.'' Where is this closer look? I'm afraid that you, Andrew Schlafly, are the only one to have this ''revelation''! But I'm waiting for your analysis of ἐπιτιμάω: there are 29 occurrences of this word in the New Testament (according to Strong), and all of them are compatible with a spoken command.... --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 04:45, 14 March 2016 (EDT)
  
::No you're right Mr. SchlaflyJust as short term dating was effective with the Shroud of Turin, I don't see why it wouldn't also be effective here.[[User:RianB|RMBchillin]] 16:08, 1 January 2011 (EST)
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:I am looking into this further todayThanks for your patience.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 11:39, 18 March 2016 (EDT)
  
:::No, the short term dating was not effective with the [[Shroud of Turin]], because the sample had been contaminated. This defect was thoroughly demonstrated in a scientific, peer-reviewed article.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 20:27, 1 January 2011 (EST)
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::It is difficult to sort through the substance from the silly put-downs, but the bottom line is this: according to even the limited view of Strong's, λέγω is translated as "I say, speak; I '''''mean''''', mention, tell.[http://biblehub.com/greek/3004.htm] (emphasis added).  Strong, of course, was no modern physicist, and he was hampered by his own lack of abstraction.  Strong's goes further to admit that "légō (originally, 'lay down to sleep,'" - which fits perfectly in the calming of the storm.
  
::::You make a good point about contamination, Mr. Schlafly, but the Ice Mummy seems less likely to be contaminated due to its sheer mass, the variety of sources tested, etc. I would guess from what we know that this is a genuine reinforcement of the Great Flood. Even if it is contaminated, there simply isn't another time period where it would logically fit in to a reasonable Creationist system. ---ADW
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::There is no reason to think that Mark, who was not there on the boat, was precisely quoting Jesus rather than describing His thoughts.
  
:::::The ice mummy was frozen, so I can't even see the possibility for contamination. In contrast, the sample taken for testing from the [[Shroud of Turin]] had much identifiable contamination, such as melted material, on it.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 22:56, 1 January 2011 (EST)
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::If you have something substantive in rebuttal, then please provide it without the ad hominems.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 23:34, 18 March 2016 (EDT)
  
:::::::Another good point, Mr. Schlafly: an object sealed in an unbroken piece of solid (glacial-grade?) ice for it's entire history is probably the safest archeological find possible, contaminant wise.--ADW
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:::#''"It is difficult to sort through the substance from the silly put-downs"'' It took you '''eight months''' to delete the sentence ''But "λέγω" -- the Greek term used for said in some versions -- does not appear in the Greek above'' from your [[Essay:Calming the Storm]]! Perhaps I could have shortened this time if I had sugar-coated my contempt by flattery, but I think that this would have been dishonest: not to spot that εἶπεν is a form of λέγω is a school-boy's error, and deserves school-yard's mockery.
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:::#''"the bottom line is this:  according to even the limited view of Strong's, λέγω is translated as "I say, speak; I '''''mean''''', mention, tell."  [http://biblehub.com/greek/3004.htm] (emphasis added)."'' λέγω is the nineth most used word in the Greek New Testament. It is the most used non-auxiliary verb - and εἰμί ("I am") is only used slightly more often (2,460 vs. 2,350 times.) Why? We talked about this above: as Biblical Greek has no quotation marks, direct speech is indicated by words like λέγω. It is used in this sense a couple of hundred times in the Gospel of Mark, even in the verses directly before and after Mark 4:39. It would be quite dishonest of Mark to use it in this single verse in a way it isn't used elsewhere in his Gospel, and in a way it hadn't been used for hundreds of years! Therefore all the translations which Strong is proposing describe verbal utterances.
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:::#''"Strong, of course, was no modern physicist, and he was hampered by his own lack of abstraction.  Strong's goes further to admit that "légō (originally, 'lay down to sleep,'" - which fits perfectly in the calming of the storm."'' There is nothing abstract in this glorified quotation mark λέγω. If I go to a courthouse in New Jersey and present myself as a "solicitor", you have every right to believe that I'm misrepresenting myself as a laywer - even if I say that I use the word in its original sense - as the French did a couple of hundred years ago, and that I'm meaning "troublemaker", not "lawyer". The same holds for λέγω: in the context of the Gospel it means something like "to say", and no one but you would think of the meaning "to lay down to sleep".
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:::#''"There is no reason to think that Mark, who was not there on the boat, was precisely quoting Jesus rather than describing His thoughts."'' There is every reason to think that Mark described the events and dialogues '''''faithfully''''' as they were reported to him. Only very rarely  '''''His thoughts''''' or feelings are described in the Gospels: just when they are obvious from his actions and words.
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:::#''"If you have something substantive in rebuttal, then please provide it without the ad hominems."'' Well, for substance, take a look at the second point of this enumeration - or read [[#Mark 4:38-41]]. But this is indeed  a very personal matter, so "ad hominems" are of relevance:
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:::##your ideas and translations are based on your personal insights - like your translation of [[Son of Man]] as "the Son, a human being", or your Biblical rebuttals to the theory of relativity. Until now, only the likes of [[PetyrB]] have been claimed to be able to follow your lines of thoughts when it comes to these insights.
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:::##you have shown your lack of Greek time and time again. You claim that you just don't have this "literal and narrow view of the Greek" - but this "literal and narrow view" comes from knowing the basics, and being actually capable of translating a Greek text, and not only paraphrasing the KJB with help from a glossary.
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::::It is frustrating to wait for eight months for the correction of a silly mistake (see the first point) - there can be  no surprise that I become frustrated and cranky, and perhaps even more snappish than necessary. But the "ad hominems", the personal remarks above are rooted in my experience of editing Conservapedia over the last years. I'll be happy if I'm proven wrong: you just have to come up with a well-thought reply, addressing each of my points in this sections and the sections above sincerely (i.e., other than by just repeating "λέγω can mean ''lay to rest''") and  diligently. It is an important matter, and it should be discussed in depths, or not at all.
 +
::::--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 10:21, 19 March 2016 (EDT)
 +
::::Will it take another eight months? --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 17:12, 28 March 2016 (EDT)
 +
::::::::::'''waiting for {{Days since|2016|3|19}} days...''' --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 17:33, 10 April 2016 (EDT)
  
== Social Sciences ==
+
After 40 days and 40 nights just another observation: Andy claims that &laquo;''Strong's goes further to admit that "légō originally [means] 'lay down to sleep,'" - which fits perfectly in the calming of the storm.''&raquo; and cites as source http://biblehub.com/greek/3004.htm . In reality, Strong doesn't do anything like this. He only gives the '''short definition''': ''I say, speak'' and the '''definition''': ''(denoting speech in progress), (a) I say, speak; I mean, mention, tell, (b) I call, name, especially in the pass., (c) I tell, command.''
  
I know that the Bible provides excellent forewarning on various sociological phenomena such as radical agendas seen in today's liberalism, authoritarian society seen in Nazi Germany, and false leaders seen in manipulative political demagogary. The question is, do these warning constitute a ''scientific'' statement, ie "social ''sciences''", or merely political warnings? If the former, then perhaps they are needed in this article to make it even more informative and relavent.--ADW
+
So, Strong makes it clear that in the Bible, λέγω is used to denote speech in progress. He doesn't bother with irrelevant Homeric meanings. ..[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 07:48, 28 April 2016 (EDT)
  
== Shroud of Turin ==
+
== Perhaps a little more dual attribution ==
 +
;I only read the lead section before posting this comment. I may revise after a more careful reading.
 +
You may want to be a little more careful in the claims made in the lead section and, when appropriate, provide double-attribution. The prophecy of events in the Bible is OK but you should avoid revisionist claims in terms of specific scientific progress. It is sometimes very easy to take credit for specific aspects of scientific progress. I am just recommending caution and editorial review for the sake of protecting the reputation of the wiki as a trustworthy encyclopedia. An example might be a claim that it was G-d's Will that some fortunate historic event came out one way or the other (such as a military battle or potential Act of Nature) but it is more extraordinary to claim that a particular game of chess (or some such) was won through Divine Intervention. There are many scientific discoveries that came about in part because of accidents that can be treated as Acts of God, but attribution to the efforts of the researcher is also appropriate. One example might be the invention of the light bulb that was in part due to the grace of G-d but it was also due in part to Edison's persistence of making many hundreds of tries before he came upon a viable working model. Oh, I now see that my comments might be more appropriate over at [[Essay:Rebuttal to Biblical scientific foreknowledge]]. I am not sure I intend for a direct rebuttal but rather cautious claims and, to some degree, a meeting of the minds.--[[User:Amorrow|Amorrow]] ([[User talk:Amorrow|talk]]) 18:03, 12 January 2017 (EST)
 +
== Set Theory ==
 +
What is paradoxical about this? It's "first in, last out", a concept, a few of hunters will have experienced after entering a narrow cave. --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 20:03, 8 June 2019 (EDT)
  
Though the shroud is mentioned in Luke 23:53, Mark 15:46 and Matthew 27:59, there is no mentioning of an image (negative or positive). Therefore, the [[Shroud of Turin]] is at best an '''extra'''-Biblical example of scientific foreknowledge. I will remove it from the article.
+
:You seem to be referring to this:
  
[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 10:34, 13 May 2011 (EDT)
+
::Set theory was unknown until the devout [[Christian]] [[Georg Cantor]] developed it in the late 1800s to understand [[God]] better.  But [[Jesus]] taught, “So the last will be first, and the first last” (Matthew 20:16 [[ESV]]), a concept that is paradoxical ''except'' in set theory.  This set-theory concept is also echoed by the repeated references to [[Jesus]] as the "Alpha and the Omega" in the [[Book of Revelation]].  (Revelation 1:8, 21:6, 22:13)
  
:The Bible mentions the Shroud several times, and it has apparently been long available for scientific and public review.  Note also that one of the Gospels describes the Shroud as lying on the ground in a way that implies the process of the [[Resurrection]] itself.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 11:08, 13 May 2011 (EDT)
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:It is obviously paradoxical for “the last will be first, and the first last” in common situations ... except when viewed through the logic of set theory.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 00:07, 9 June 2019 (EDT)
  
::''The Bible mentions the Shroud several times'' Indeed, the  σινδών is mentioned three times (as I stated above. We know that it was made from linen, but no picture is mentioned '''in the Bible'''. That's an important point as we are discussing [[Biblical scientific foreknowledge]] and not ''scientifically advanced relics''. [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 11:18, 13 May 2011 (EDT)
 
::'''BTW''': Could you take a look [[Talk:John_1-7_(Translated)#.28Matthew_27:51.29_At_Bible_Translation_Issues.2C_no._17.2C_you_wrote:_The_word_.22behold.22_appears_frequently_in_the_KJV_but_lacks_a_modern_equivalent._Is_there_a_strategy_for_this_dealing_with_this_concept.3F_Possibilities_include_.22rejoice.22.2C_.22observe.22.2C_.22listen.22.2C_.22note_that.22.2C_and_ignoring_it_altogether_.28which_modern_versions_often_do.29._Here.2C_you_omit_the_nuance_at_the_moment_which_you_used_in_Matthew_27:51._I_checked_a_couple_of_dictionaries_and_failed_to_find_at_the_moment_as_a_translation_of_.E1.BC.B0.CE.B4.CE.BF.CF.8D._Where_did_you_find_it.3F|here]]? Thanks. [[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 11:20, 13 May 2011 (EDT)
 
  
:::I plan to review and comment on your extensive edits about the "at that moment" issue.  As to the Shroud issue, again I think you elevate form over substance:  what matters is whether an open-minded reading of the Bible and related evidence could have guided scientists to discover photography.  The answer is "yes", and hence this should be included along with the numerous other examples of [[Biblical scientific foreknowledge]].--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 12:55, 13 May 2011 (EDT)
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*εἰσιν οἱ ἔσχατοι πρῶτοι could be seen as paradoxical, but what is paradoxical about ἔσονται οἱ ἔσχατοι πρῶτοι - which is in Matthew 20:16? Has your position never changed over time?
 +
*Could you please explain in a little more detail the connection between set-theory and the concept? Perhaps in the language of set-theory? Thanks!
 +
--[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 17:54, 10 June 2019 (EDT)
  
::::*''I plan to review and comment on your extensive edits about the "at that moment" issue'': I'm looking forward to your reply!
+
== Sports ==
::::*''...again I think you elevate form over substance'' '''''again'''''? I prefer to think that I elevate facts over fiction! And I try to keep it civil.
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::::*''what matters is whether an open-minded reading of the Bible and related evidence could have guided scientists to discover photography.'' That's the wrong way around: only ''after'' the discovery of photography the remarkable qualities of the [[Shroud of Turin]] could be observed!
+
::::*''The answer is "yes"'' In light of the preceding point: the answer is "no"
+
::::[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 08:31, 20 May 2011 (EDT)
+
  
:::::August, I recall your request for me to look for any reference translating ἰδού  as "at that moment."  With one simple search, I found that it is translated as "when" [http://www.studylight.org/lex/grk/view.cgi?number=2400], which is archaic for "at that time" in today's vernacular.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 18:43, 10 July 2011 (EDT)
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This entry seems especially dubious: the pagans - especially the ancient Greeks - were known for valuing "physical exercise" very much (look for γυμνάσιον)! --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] ([[User talk:AugustO|talk]]) 07:34, 3 November 2019 (EST)
::::::Surely this isn't the ''[http://conservapedia.com/index.php?&title=Talk%3ABiblical_scientific_foreknowledge&action=historysubmit&diff=868549&oldid=868528 review and comment]'' which you were planning for two months?
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::::::::''I plan to review and comment on your extensive edits about the "at that moment" issue. [...] --[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 12:55, 13 May 2011 (EDT)''
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::::::Though it doesn't address the issues I detailed [[Talk:John_1-7_(Translated)#Issue_with_translation_of_John_4:53|here]], I will take a closer look at your statement:
+
::::::'''''August, I recall your request for me to look for any reference translating ἰδού  as "at that moment." ''''' It pains me that I have to stress this: I don't ask you for '''any''' reference, but for a '''meaningful''' reference! The first attempt to come up with such a reference was your [http://conservapedia.com/index.php?title=Talk:John_1-7_(Translated)&diff=next&oldid=862247 google count] of ἰδού and "at that moment". I think I showed how such an argument is flawed in general, and especially in this case - as the top hits of your google don't corroborate your view. As I said on [http://conservapedia.com/index.php?&title=Talk%3AJohn_1-7_%28Translated%29&action=historysubmit&diff=862369&oldid=862252 April 18, 2011]:
+
::::::::''Aschlafy, I understand that you have not much time at hand. But it should have been obvious from the beginning that an appeal to a google ranking has no place in a serious project like this translation. To make me stating the obvious ([[Talk:Matthew_20-28_(Translated)#ἰδού|here]] is bad enough. Getting me to make it ''blatantly'' obvious (as I have done above) is a waste of my time. Please remember that an argument is not only about ''participation'', but about ''contribution''!  --[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 10:53, 18 April 2011 (EDT)
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::::::Frankly, I expected your ''comment and review'' to answer to these problems with your google-based approach, too.
+
::::::Unfortunately, the new comment doesn't include a '''meaningful''' reference, neither.
+
::::::'''''With one simple search...''''' this should have been a warning: you have tried ''simple searches'' before, and you failed.
+
::::::'''''...I found that it is translated as "when"...''''' Indeed, your source shows that ἰδού is translated once (out of 165 occurrences) as ''when'' by the NAS, the [[New American Standard Bible]]. Conservapedia states
+
::::::::''The New American Standard Bible (NASB) is a modern English language translation of the Bible. It is fully accessible online.
+
::::::::''It is based on the 1901 American Standard Version, but seeks to provide a smoother reading in contemporary English. Archaic English "thee's" and "thou's" are replaced and words and phrases have been updated to the extent that their familiar meanings have changed. Sentences beginning with "and" have been changed, sometimes substituting "then" or "but" depending on the context. Through consultation with original Hebrew and Greek texts, some passages have been corrected.
+
  
::::::'''''...which is archaic for "at that time" in today's vernacular.''''' Yep, ''when'' can be archaic for "at that time", but it is definitely not used this way in the NASB, as the NASB avoids archaic expressions - as you can see in the section above. And "at that time" isn't the same as "at that moment"
+
==Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences==
 +
This article could point out that when Saint Paul writes about the different spiritual gifts (I think it was in one of his epistles to the Corinthians) he was predicting Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences. [[User:Carltonio|Carltonio]] ([[User talk:Carltonio|talk]]) 15:44, 22 November 2019 (EST)
  
::::::'''Summary: ''' On March 24, 2011 you claimed that there is a ''[http://conservapedia.com/index.php?&title=Matthew_20-28_%28Translated%29&action=historysubmit&diff=858739&oldid=757784 nuance of the Greek ἰδού that means "at that moment"]''. Ever since then you have failed to back up this claim using a credible source. So four months later the only justification to translate ἰδού as "at that moment" is still that it suits you.
+
== Anaethestics ==
  
::::::::Μαρτυρῶ ἐγὼ παντὶ τῷ ἀκούοντι τοὺς λόγους τῆς προφητείας τοῦ βιβλίου τούτου· ἐάν τις ἐπιθῇ ἐπ’ αὐτά, ἐπιθήσει ὁ θεὸς ἐπ’ αὐτὸν τὰς πληγὰς τὰς γεγραμμένας ἐν τῷ βιβλίῳ τούτῳ, Μαρτυρῶ ἐγὼ παντὶ τῷ ἀκούοντι τοὺς λόγους τῆς προφητείας τοῦ βιβλίου τούτου· ἐάν τις ἐπιθῇ ἐπ’ αὐτά, ἐπιθήσει ὁ θεὸς ἐπ’ αὐτὸν τὰς πληγὰς τὰς γεγραμμένας ἐν τῷ βιβλίῳ τούτῳ, Λέγει ὁ μαρτυρῶν ταῦτα, Ναί, ἔρχομαι ταχύ. Ἀμήν, ἔρχου κύριε Ἰησοῦ.
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I find the following sentence confused and thus very confusing:
  
::::::(I had replied to this comment [[User talk:Aschlafly#New_namespace_for_the_CBP|elsewhere ]], but I didn't want to let it stay here seemingly unchallanged)
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::Had scientists and physicians been more [[Essay:Quantifying Openmindedness|openminded]] about Genesis 2:21 (perhaps they had considered it a miracle, and thus impossible for humans to achieve), they may have discovered anesthesia far sooner, and saved many more lives."
 +
God was performing a miracle. And part of God's plan for humanity seems to have been that we would learn over a long period of time. The idea that science and scientists reject what the Bible says is nonsense. Rather God speaks differently to modern people whereas He was speaking to nomadic tribesmen in the Bible. He now speaks to an entirely different audience. The Bible is of great importance but God is the '''author of science'' and its modern discoveries also. To suggest otherwise is blasphemous according my understanding of religious faith. Please fix!! --[[User:RobLeonardWoo|RobLeonardWoo]] ([[User talk:RobLeonardWoo|talk]]) 14:57, August 5, 2022 (EDT)
  
::::::[[User:AugustO|AugustO]] 09:56, 6 September 2011 (EDT)
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Maybe I'm too literal minded, but this seems to be saying that God performed an operation using a general anesthetic when he cut out Adams rib. This is ludicrous – God used His supernatural powers. Likewise he did not create Eve in a test tube out of Adam's bone marrow or by some advanced genetic technology.  Logical thinking indeed.--[[User:RobLeonardWoo|RobLeonardWoo]] ([[User talk:RobLeonardWoo|talk]]) 14:20, August 7, 2022 (EDT)
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:I've deleted the parenthetical, which detracts from the point.  Miracles are possible, and many properly view miracles as signs of what is possible.  Close-mindedness rejects the possibility.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 18:41, August 7, 2022 (EDT)
  
== Section on bloodletting ==
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== Illogical (irreligious?) article ==
  
I removed the section on bloodletting as it doesn't demonstrate foreknowledge. ASchlafly reverted. So it seems like a discussion would be useful. In this case, the Bible shows no scientific foreknowledge. By noting that Jesus died more quickly than people usually did from crucifixion, Pontius Pilate is saying what happened. Not why it happened, nor what you would need to do in order to have someone else also die more quickly than usual. Saying "I'm surprised this happened" doesn't show that you know why it happened, it only shows that you know it happened. Because it doesn't demonstrate foreknowledge, it should be removed from the article. - [[User:JamesCA|JamesCA]] 23:17, 3 September 2011 (EDT)
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I find this article puzzling. Yes, God knows all and it is therefore not surprising that the Bible should appear to foreshadow some scientific discoveries. But there seems to be a confusion. The Bible was written for an ancient nomadic people and so does not speak in the language of modern science. Likewise it is not a manual for building a computer or how to get to the moon. Furthermore while God, as Creator, has absolute knowledge, humanity through science, philosophy, the arts, etc. gradually, overtime reveals more and more about creation. The article needs to more clearly acknowledge human imperfection and that science is fallible, while still being part of God's plan. The idea that if a scientist is an atheist his science is bad is problematic. Think about it. Do we only accept technology or medical procedures developed by Christians." God moves in mysterious ways his wonders to perform" (William Cowper).--[[User:RobLeonardWoo|RobLeonardWoo]] ([[User talk:RobLeonardWoo|talk]]) 18:07, August 6, 2022 (EDT)
  
:The [[Bible]] is providing valuable scientific data hereSometimes a [[Nobel Prize]] is given based on the observation of data, even though the data are not yet well understood by the recipients of the Prize. If observing data can be enough for a Nobel Prize, then why can't it be enough for the Bible?--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:23, 3 September 2011 (EDT)
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:Maybe the argument is failure to acknowledge God's sovereignty contaminates everything. Sure, someone may argue, "What about Prof. such-and-such who discovered treatment for XYZ disease? He was an atheist." That has to be measured against him (or they) being held up as a role model for [[God denier]]s and God haters, and the damage human [[pride]] has done to the species. [[User:RobSmith|RobS]]<sup>[[User talk:RobSmith|Ich bin ein breakfast taco]]</sup> 18:29, August 6, 2022 (EDT)
::Such as when? And I highly doubt that observation alone would be enough for any scientific prize. The recipient would have had to have demonstrated why it happened, or at least how to replicate it. Neither of which Pontius Pilate did. - [[User:JamesCA|JamesCA]] 23:28, 3 September 2011 (EDT)
+
  
:::A Nobel Prize for blackbody radiation from the [[Big Bang]] was given based on the mere observation of data, without requiring the recipients to demonstrate a full understanding of an underlying theory behind it.  Indeed, many Nobel Prizes are given more for experiments than theory, such as the Nobel Prize for the transistor.
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::Even an atheist scientists can be doing God's work, do you not agre?  Most of the evil over the centuries has been caused by religious organizations and human greed not science. Where science has caused harm it has been mostly business men and politicians, along with the profit motif, that has been to blame, whatever, the faith of the scientists involved may have been. Also, it is worth noting the profound insights found in other religious texts, especially BuddhismAn atheist scientist who is awed by God's creation is closer to God than many who claim they are Christians, but who really worship materialism.--[[User:RobLeonardWoo|RobLeonardWoo]] ([[User talk:RobLeonardWoo|talk]]) 19:40, August 6, 2022 (EDT).
  
:::You keep referring to Pontius Pilate but it was the Bible and its authors who observed and published the data. Too bad many scientists didn't study the Bible with an open mind. If they had, then a greater scientific understanding would have been achieved earlier.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 23:46, 3 September 2011 (EDT)
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:::Interesting hypothesis. My determination: It's flawed. And for the sake of argument, I'm not going to argue it. [[User:RobSmith|RobS]]<sup>[[User talk:RobSmith|Ich bin ein breakfast taco]]</sup> 20:39, August 6, 2022 (EDT)
  
::::However, Mather and Smoot (who won that prize) won it for a discovery, which means they knew what to do to replicate the results. They didn't necessarily understand why they got the results, but they knew what to do to get them again. They knew that "When you do this, this happens", the results are replicable. Whereas saying that Jesus died more quickly than others usually did doesn't indicate knowledge of how to replicate it. - [[User:JamesCA|JamesCA]] 00:48, 4 September 2011 (EDT)
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No one has yet explained to me the point of this illogical article.  
  
::::: How about the [[Michelson-Morley experiment]] as another example? I don't think they understood the results, yet it is perhaps the most famous experiment in history. And it did not require replication.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 10:02, 6 September 2011 (EDT)
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(1) Why would God provide foreknowledge of things to the Israelites that have yet to be discovered?
 +
(2) Why criticize scientists for not making discoveries sooner, when this was clearly God's intention that humankind would over aeons do this?
 +
(3) God represents perfection whereas scientists only strifes for perfection and  cannot be criticized for failing, if they acts in good faith.
 +
(4) Religion has frequently opposed many scientific discoveries that are claimed here as biblical foreknowledge.
 +
(5) Maybe the article ends up implying God that made the mistake of not revealing, at the beginning, what science has discovered?
  
:::::: Michelson did get the 1907 Nobel Prize for it, but the citation did not mention the relativity interpretation. The first person to understand the experiment was FitzGerald in 1889. Einstein historians say that he did not grasp the importance of it. [[User:RSchlafly|RSchlafly]] 12:42, 6 September 2011 (EDT)
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Why is the article needed: to bash scientists? –or  to to criticize God for not giving Adam and Eve access to the marvels of 20th century technology?
  
::::::: Right, and surely all would agree that Michelson deserved to win that Nobel Prize whether he understood the reasons for his results or not.
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This article is utterly illogical.  Delete it or get someone who understands theology to rewrite.
 +
A genuine '''intelligent''' article on the dangers of worshipping of science to the detriment of spiritual values is needed, not this pseudo, fake "philosophy"/"theology".--[[User:RobLeonardWoo|RobLeonardWoo]] ([[User talk:RobLeonardWoo|talk]]) 12:59, August 7, 2022 (EDT)
  
::::::: But imagine if Michelson's results were written up in a religious tract instead of a scientific journalMost scientists would be ignoring it to this day!--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] 14:17, 6 September 2011 (EDT)
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:Predictions of scientific possibilities are immensely helpfulI don't understand your criticism.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 18:47, August 7, 2022 (EDT)
  
::::::: Two things - firstly, there's a difference in repeating an experiment, and knowing how to repeat it. Just because an experiment hasn't been repeated doesn't mean it can't. (Also, the Michelson-Morley experiment has been repeated, at least by those who have developed alternative theories to relativity). Secondly, both the blackbody radiation experiment, and the Michelson-Morley experiment show an understanding of 'if we do this, then this happens.' Whereas simply noting that Jesus died quicker than people usually do, doesn't. For it to demonstrate foreknowledge, then the Bible would have to say that BECAUSE he lost a lot of blood first, he died quicker. Which the Bible doesn't say. Also, with regards to if the M-M results had been written up in a religious tract instead of a scientific journal, since when has a religious book included a description of an experiment they performed? And as an interesting idea, could you come up with a list of things the Bible says demonstrating scientific knowledge that science hasn't discovered yet? Caus if science would benefit from taking advice from the Bible, then ideally some scientific breakthroughs should be predictable? - [[User:JamesCA|JamesCA]] 01:36, 7 September 2011 (EDT)
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::My impression is RLW confuses science with human pride; he sounds as if he is of the school that teaches, "We don't need God. We have science. We're smarter than God." [[User:RobSmith|RobS]]<sup>[[User talk:RobSmith|Ich bin ein breakfast taco]]</sup> 19:37, August 7, 2022 (EDT)
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::::You are confused RobS. My point is that God is the supreme Creator and as the creator of humankind the source of science. I am not denying that science can be misused and corrupted. But just imagine what your life would be like if you were living in biblical times. --[[User:RobLeonardWoo|RobLeonardWoo]] ([[User talk:RobLeonardWoo|talk]]) 13:32, August 8, 2022 (EDT).
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:::::The [[Amish]] live that way, and are thriving better than [[atheist]]ic society. Some atheists say we should strive to live "[[off-the-grid]]", which is how people lived in biblical times.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 13:41, August 8, 2022 (EDT)
  
== Predictive power of Biblical scientific foreknowledge ==
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Presumably you , [[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]], make frequent  use of modern science, other than the internet and you and/or family have benefited from the advances made by modern medical science. What is needed is an intelligent discussion of the harm caused to spiritual values by a '''worship''' of science and materialistic values, not this waffle.  I do not understand how these supposed biblical predictions are "immensely helpful".
 +
Also, as noted previously, the idea of God performing surgery, using a general anaesthetic so totally absurd. 
 +
But I must be misunderstanding you and RobS, there is no other explanation. [[User:RobLeonardWoo|RobLeonardWoo]]
 +
:Many lives could have been saved or improved if anesthesia had been discovered earlier.  Why wasn't it?  Because [[atheist]]ic scientists are closed-minded about [[Biblical scientific foreknowledge]].  If more scientists had been open-minded earlier about the anesthesia described in [[Genesis]], more would have benefited from anesthesia.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 02:41, August 9, 2022 (EDT)
  
What is the predictive power of the Bible?  What specific predictions does it make that can be tested? Before it happens, not after-the-fact. For example, what does the Bible say about the Higgs boson? Does the Bible predict it exists and, if so, what is its mass? Or the [[P=NP]] problem in computing. Where does the Bible stand on that?
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== Construction of ancient sky-high structures ==
  
The article says "Had scientists and physicians been more openminded about Genesis 2:21 (perhaps they had considered it a miracle, and thus impossible for humans to achieve), they may have discovered anesthesia far sooner, and saved many more lives." Is anyone here reading the Bible to find the cure for cancer? That would save millions of lives. --[[User:MatthewQ|MatthewQ]] 20:13, 14 September 2011 (EDT)
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I do not understand why this section was restored. The Bible recorded an historical fact and modern archeology has confirmed this. What has this to do with "scientific foreknowledge? Does the Truth of the Bible need to be confirmed? I don't understand the purpose of this compendium of biblical trivia. But I will remove this page from my watch list! --[[User:RobLeonardWoo|RobLeonardWoo]] ([[User talk:RobLeonardWoo|talk]]) 14:37, August 8, 2022 (EDT)
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:Leaving this discussion with a proverbial [[Parthian shot]]?  We see lots of those here.  Until the 1900s some thought skyscrapers were impossible.  Not those who read the [[Bible]] with an open mind.--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]]
  
== Sociology ==
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::Presumably there were open-minded readers of the Bible before 1901, including architects and engineers. I doubt that all engineers/scientists are atheists, and they especially were not prior to 1901.  You are blaming God because he did not give humankind enough knowledge in Eden! Skyscapers were not built until recently because that is how God planned it; use your God-given brain!  --[[User:RobLeonardWoo|RobLeonardWoo]] ([[User talk:RobLeonardWoo|talk]]) 10:16, August 9, 2022 (EDT)
  
A new section on sociology was added, which claimed that the vast majority of crimes are solved. This is not the case. In the US in 2010, 65% of manslaughters are prosecuted, 40% of rapes, 28% of robberies. See http://www.fbi.gov/about-us/cjis/ucr/crime-in-the-u.s/2010/crime-in-the-u.s.-2010/clearances for the information. Note: the statistics are on the crimes, not the people arrested. ie. a person commits 3 crimes, and are arrested. It's counted as 3 solved crimes. And if 5 people jointly commit a crime, and they are arrested, it's counted as 1 solved crime. - [[User:JamesCA|JamesCA]] 23:02, 15 October 2011 (EDT)
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== Source for scientific evidene for circumsision on the 8th day ==
:I don't know nearly enough about crime statistics to comment, but I think an important detail you've missed is that the article specifically refers to crimes ''worldwide'', not merely crimes in the United States. Your source is the FBI and specifically says "crime in the US," which obviously creates a discrepancy between your claim and the article. [[User:KevinDavis|Kevin Davis]] <sup>[[User talk:KevinDavis|Talk]]</sup> 23:14, 15 October 2011 (EDT)
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I want to add the following link as a source for that section of the article under the bible and health practices, but am unable to add the link as a reference (am only used to doing it with wikipedia smart editor, not with wikitext). Could someone please add this? Thanks.
::JamesCA, you are ruining the old adage ''crime doesn't pay''. If what you're saying adds up, then a person is more likely to get away with crime than to get caught.  A break down of individual crimes is gonna lead everywhere. One year's data is not a good indicator. --[[User:Jpatt|Jpatt]] 23:41, 15 October 2011 (EDT)
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https://www.researchgate.net/publication/321462229_Haematological_Basis_of_8th_Day_Male_Child_Circumcision_in_The_Holy_Bible
:::With certain crimes someone is more likely to get away with the crime, than to get caught. It's unfortunate, but that doesn't make it any less true. I've looked at the stats for other years - '06: http://www2.fbi.gov/ucr/cius2006/offenses/clearances/index.html, '07: http://www2.fbi.gov/ucr/cius2007/offenses/clearances/index.html, '08: http://www2.fbi.gov/ucr/cius2007/offenses/clearances/index.html, '09: http://www2.fbi.gov/ucr/cius2007/offenses/clearances/index.html. And these all show similar statistics. I also looked for stats on other countries (including trying EU, MI5 and Interpol websites), but couldn't find any. Does anyone have any statistics showing that most crimes are solved (in other countries or worldwide)? - [[User:JamesCA|JamesCA]] 02:41, 16 October 2011 (EDT)
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[[User:Ethan Parmet|Ethan Parmet]] ([[User talk:Ethan Parmet|talk]]) 17:06, September 11, 2022 (EDT)
::::Whatever the case, the article could always be reworded to include the unofficial punishments for crimes. Regardless of whether or not the majority of crimes worldwide are solved, other punishments exist. The quoted passage of Mark may also be referring to God's knowledge of our crimes, or the internal punishments we inflict on ourselves. Have you ever read Dostoyevsky's work, ''Crime and Punishment''? The psychological effects of committing a crime are well known to psychologists, regardless of whether or not the crime itself is solved by authorities. Those all sound like strong reasons for why crime doesn't pay! [[User:KevinDavis|Kevin Davis]] <sup>[[User talk:KevinDavis|Talk]]</sup> 09:06, 16 October 2011 (EDT)
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:Posted the good link as suggested. Well done!--[[User:Aschlafly|Andy Schlafly]] ([[User talk:Aschlafly|talk]]) 20:26, September 11, 2022 (EDT)
::::Then in that case it should come under psychology, rather than sociology. And I agree that the passage refers to God's knowledge of everything about us, including our crimes, and that we can't hide anything from God. - [[User:JamesCA|JamesCA]] 09:31, 22 October 2011 (EDT)
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Latest revision as of 00:26, September 12, 2022

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Archive 1

One problem

This is a wonderful article, with many in sites that could drive atheists to the brink of despair. The one issue is "...by 2011 obesity was far more prevalent and harmful than hunger. " I realize that this is an America-centric wiki, but if you look at world numbers, 500 000 000 obese, 925 000 000 without adequate nutrition. Just found this a bit of a slap in the face

I think you're missing a key word in your comment. I also think there are more than 500 million obese people in the world.--Andy Schlafly 23:51, 20 February 2012 (EST)
http://www.who.int/mediacentre/factsheets/fs311/en/ These are the 2008 obesity statistics. As for the missing key word, I could not find it, but if you could point out a flaw in my argument, I would be quite happy Sy20 12:02, 21 February 2012 (EST)

Grand Unified Theory... what!?

"But Genesis explains that the creation of light was done in a separate, initial creation, free of darkness or entropy, and thus incapable of unification with matter." So did God specifically separate visible light out from the rest of the EM spectrum, or did He create x-rays, gamma rays, radio waves, electricity and magnetism at the same time? Seems to me if light was a separate creation it wouldn't rest in the middle of the current electromagnetic spectrum, was it shoehorned in later? I'm not sure what to make of what I'm reading here. Further explanation is required. --JoshuaB 20:38, 25 February 2012 (EST)

Like I said below, both light and (say) electrons behave sometimes like waves, and sometimes like particles. In the standard formalism people use, one takes the fields to fundamental for everything: photons, gluons, quarks, electrons, and so on. (This is called quantum field theory, for obvious reasons.) And like Joshua said, is it specifically the visible spectrum, or all EM radiation? Because it's clear that there is nothing special about the visible spectrum. And GUT's refer to the unification of the strong force with the electroweak force. Not light with matter. AndyFrankinson 10:18, 18 March 2012 (EDT)

Section or new article on future knowledge

I was thinking it would be a good idea to write an article, or perhaps a subsection to this article, that details knowledge or predictions in the bible that are not yet known to science. What do you think? --JeremyK 12:46, 1 March 2012 (EST)

That's a great idea! Please start a subsection or, perhaps better, a new entry as you suggested.--Andy Schlafly 13:06, 1 March 2012 (EST)
Excellent! I have to finish up a research paper this week so I'll be very busy, but I'll try and draw up a draft for next weekend.--JeremyK 08:50, 4 March 2012 (EST)
I had a look at the page just now and I can't find the section on future knowledge. Am I missing it or should I add one? BarrySM 18:04, 22 February 2014 (EST)
Well I went ahead and did it. Hope everyone likes it. BarrySM 09:33, 24 February 2014 (EST)

GUT

You state that "Billions of dollars and millions of hours have been wasted by atheists in futile pursuit of a "grand unified theory" for physics. But Genesis explains that the creation of light was done in a separate, initial creation, free of darkness or entropy, and thus incapable of unification with matter." I had a laugh at this: electromagnetism/light was unified with another force (the weak force) around 40 years ago...
And don't tell me you are going to start a "counterexamples to the electroweak theory" page... AndyFrankinson 19:54, 1 March 2012 (EST)

Maybe you'll get a response. As you can see, I made similar statements a few sections above you. --JoshuaB 19:59, 1 March 2012 (EST)
Yeah, I noticed that right after I posted mine. Sorry! AndyFrankinson 20:47, 1 March 2012 (EST)
Yeah, and sometimes light acts like particles (e.g., the photoelectric effect). But a few similarities between light and matter do not negate the fundamental differences.--Andy Schlafly 22:36, 2 March 2012 (EST)
And what are the fundamental differences? Everything sometimes acts like particles, and sometimes like waves. Correct me if I'm wrong, but isn't the point of a GUT to unite the electroweak theory with the theory of the strong force (quantum chromodynamics)? AndyFrankinson 19:43, 6 March 2012 (EST)
Semantic debates are not very interesting. The basic point is clear: light (the entire spectrum) is fundamentally different from matter as illustrated by their creation on different days. Efforts to unify them are a waste of time and money.--Andy Schlafly 10:54, 18 March 2012 (EDT)
So the point you are making is: light and matter are different, and so light cannot be on equal footing with (say) electrons, right? AndyFrankinson 13:53, 18 March 2012 (EDT)
They have the same Creator, so if one searches hard enough then a few similarities can be found, but fundamentally they were created on different days for different purposes, and are very different.--Andy Schlafly 14:53, 18 March 2012 (EDT)
And what are the differences? In the formalism one uses in particle physics, both the photons and the electrons are treated with the field as fundamental--the particles are merely quanta of the excited energy spectrum. AndyFrankinson 20:00, 18 March 2012 (EDT)
If there were no differences, then a unified theory would exist. But it does not. Mass exerts a gravitational force that is fundamentally different from electromagnetism.--Andy Schlafly 22:33, 20 March 2012 (EDT)
Can light be unified with any other force? Like the nuclear forces? AndyFrankinson 14:46, 21 March 2012 (EDT)
I also think you're confusing inertial mass with gravitational mass.... AndyFrankinson 20:03, 2 April 2012 (EDT)

Last shall be first, and the first shall be last

How is this statement hinting to set-theory? Could this explained? And did it hint the LIFO principle of queuing theory? For me this seems to be quite a stretch. AugustO 10:04, 17 June 2012 (EDT)

Yes, could someone offer some explanation. Richardm (talk) 08:56, 23 September 2016 (EDT)

There is no credible argument that this has anything to do with set theory, and its inclusion simply weakens the credibility of the article and the encyclopaedia. I'm deleting this example. Erniecohen (talk) 22:03, 13 November 2016 (EST)

I would like to hear an argument in support of this, but before someone does, it should not be deleted. --1990'sguy (talk) 22:13, 13 November 2016 (EST)
I deleted it (before the deletion was reverted) because the original objection to it is over 3 years old, with no responses in favor of keeping it. How long are we supposed to wait before deleting such nonsense? Absurd entries like this just make the page into a joke. I would not be surprised if some of these examples were put in by people trying to do just that. Erniecohen (talk) 22:26, 13 November 2016 (EST)
Thanks for deleting it. There is no need to put in entries which are not clear examples.Conservative (talk) 23:50, 13 November 2016 (EST)
My question for 1990'sguy is when is it okay to actually delete it. Erniecohen (talk) 13:40, 14 November 2016 (EST)
An editor whom I trust has stated that the article is better without it, so I won't object you removing it. --1990'sguy (talk) 21:28, 14 November 2016 (EST)
I deleted it (FILO :-) ) - after four and a half year... Success of sorts... --AugustO (talk) 07:29, 20 November 2016 (EST)

Pi to one significant figure

I removed the comment about pi to one significant figure as the verses deal with 10 * pi. I know that 31 to one sig fig is still 30, but the verses are in the order of magnitude 1, not 10, so it would be nonsensical to round 31 to 30. WilcoxD 00:54, 20 August 2012 (EDT)

Can I suggest that you remove the reference to decimal measurement, this is irrelevant to the argument given that pi can be expressed as a fraction.--Matthewhammond 18:28, 25 July 2013 (EDT)

... out of no extra material

One would think that loafs and fishes are measurable ("material") and therefore, that Banach-Tarski isn't applicable... --AugustO 16:08, 12 September 2012 (EDT)

One would think that if Jesus' extraordinary doings were explainable by scientific means that said doings aren't actually miracles but merely a corollary of Clarke's third law? This, in turn could be used in a denial of Our Savior's deity. JuanMotame 16:50, 12 September 2012 (EDT)
Replying to August, I find his objection to be nitpicky. The analogy with Banach-Tarski is a strong one.--Andy Schlafly 23:56, 14 September 2012 (EDT)
Nitpicky? I start to see this as a compliment...
Banach-Tarsky relies on the Axiom of Choice to choose two sets from a ball which are not measurable: there is no way to put a weight to those two sets in any sensible way - thus no material can be chopped up this way. AugustO 02:04, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

Zero

I couldn't find any reference to zero in the Bible in the sense of a place-value notation. Obviously there are many mentions of nothingness, but that is a different topic - and you'll find similar occurrences in virtually every piece of literature. AugustO 06:03, 14 September 2012 (EDT)

Aschlafly, by your standard the Iliad contains hundreds of references to the concept of zero throughout:
θαρσήσας μάλα εἰπὲ θεοπρόπιον ὅ τι οἶσθα:
οὐ μὰ γὰρ Ἀπόλλωνα Διῒ φίλον, ᾧ τε σὺ Κάλχαν
εὐχόμενος Δαναοῖσι θεοπροπίας ἀναφαίνεις,
οὔ τις ἐμεῦ ζῶντος καὶ ἐπὶ χθονὶ δερκομένοιο
σοὶ κοίλῃς παρὰ νηυσί βαρείας χεῖρας ἐποίσει
συμπάντων Δαναῶν, οὐδ᾽ ἢν Ἀγαμέμνονα εἴπῃς,
ὃς νῦν πολλὸν ἄριστος Ἀχαιῶν εὔχεται εἶναι.
Do you see how Achilles refers to zero Greeks? Does this mean that Homer foresaw our modern decimal system? That is absurd. Until you can show at least one verse in the Bible where there is a reference to zero in the sense of a place-value notation, I'll remove this topic. AugustO 01:59, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
In my opinion it is also incorrect to say that western mathematicians had no concept of zero, it is just that it is not necessary in an additive number system like roman numerals. I forget the exact place, but the Venerable Bede (who lived quite early in the middle ages) uses the word 'nulla'(or something to that effect, my Latin is non-existent) to stand for zero in a list.Cmurphynz 09:42, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
The concept of nothing or zero existed by the Middle Ages. Many credit India with the discovery of zero/nothing around A.D. 500, I think.
But if Romans had not been so resistant to the Bible then they would have discovered and used it far sooner. The importance of zero/nothing is pervasive in the Bible. Indeed, I'll add the insight in one passage about how 0 times a large number is still zero.--Andy Schlafly 09:53, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
  • The Romans were - most of the time - not resistant to the Bible, but ignorant of it: from 753 B.C. until 100 A.D., there was only the Old Testament around, and Judaism is not exactly religion encouraging missionaries...
  • Bede used nulla in the early 8th century, the decimal system was introduced by Fibonacci in the 12th century. The inventors were the Hindus which generally didn't know the Bible at all: So was the knowledge of the Bible detrimental to the introduction of zero as a powerful mathematical concept?
  • Again, please give us a sample of verses were zero occurs in the Bible - that shouldn't be difficult for you, as you claim that The importance of zero/nothing is pervasive in the Bible.
AugustO 10:09, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

Argument from Numerology

Also, in Matthew 16:26, Jesus points out that after one loses his soul (the equivalent of zero), no multiplication of value can amount to anything: it's still zero. In other words, anything times zero is still zero, an insight the Romans lacked.

Aschlafy, you are introducing numerology into scripture! There is no mention of zero in this verse, you put it into it for your convenience!

For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul? (Matthew 16:26)

Where did you get the idea that the Romans lacked the insight that anything times zero is still zero? Any scholarly source?

And you are not even consistent: On other places you are talking about the concept of infinity - but zero times infinity isn't necessarily zero.... --AugustO 04:36, 16 September 2012 (EDT)

  • My edit comment got mangled - it should read: why zero and not -∞? That's just arbitrary...
  • if you try to read mathematics into Matthew 16:26, one way is to say that the soul is of infinite value, therefore its worth more than all existing things. Another way is to say that it is of a very great, but finite value, but worth more than all existing things. A third, more modern way, is to claim that it doesn't make sense to compare the soul and mundane things, i.e., that there is no complete order on the value of everything. But these are all interpretations of this verse, none of which is obvious-

--AugustO 01:38, 17 September 2012 (EDT)

The most straightforward interpretation is that when a man loses his soul, he has nothing (zero).--Andy Schlafly 01:18, 26 September 2012 (EDT)
I'm afraid that is straightforward only to you - especially the use of the multiplication: when we lose or acquire things, we tend to add their value, not to multiply it. AugustO 01:25, 26 September 2012 (EDT)

IMO numerological arguments are meaningless, but here is the most "obvious" or "straightforward" rendition of the verse using your "values": lost soul (0) + world (some value x) = x, ergo something. Have you found anyone else who realized that this verse uses the concept of zero? Or is this insight shared by no one else, allowing only you to see this reference to zero?

Such "insights" can be constructed for the Iliad, too! Does this mean that the Greek gods gave us the zero?

AugustO 01:55, 26 September 2012 (EDT)

The significance of blood

The Old Testament teaches that the life of all flesh is its blood (Leviticus 17:13-14 (KJV)). Secular science remained ignorant of the properties and circulation of blood until the 17th century A.D.

That is not correct - the source itself states: That is, life depends upon the existence and circulation of blood, a truth known empirically but not scientifically tested and proved until the 17th century a.d. (cf. Lev 17:11).

Indeed, the blood circuit couldn't be seen completely before the invention of the microscope...

AugustO 06:36, 14 September 2012 (EDT)

God and Calculus

The Bible emphasizes the importance of limits as a key distinction between this world and God; Calculus consists of relying on limits to derive useful results.

Where does the Bible do so? The "source" - Norie Grace Rivera-Poblete: "God and Calculus", Institute for Christian Teaching Education Department of Seventh-day Adventist, Prepared for the 27th International Faith and Learning Seminar held at Mission, Muak Lek Saraburi, Thailand December 3 – 15, 2000 - gives one example:

  • "Limit" reminds us of the experience of the Israelites, as they traveled through the wilderness. Most of the adult Israelites who came out from Egypt did not enter the Promised Land except for Caleb and Joshua. The children of Israel "approached" the Promised Land; generally speaking, all of them reached the border. But none of them would have made it were it not for God's limitless love and grace. Even though they disobeyed Him so many times, God still kept His covenant with the Israelites.

That's just not convincing. --AugustO 16:33, 14 September 2012 (EDT)

The Concept of Infinity

Most thinkers scoffed at the concept of infinity for thousands of years, despite being referenced in the Bible in many ways. See, e.g., Psalm 147:4-6 (God's "understanding is infinte"); Matthew 20:1-14 (parable of the wages for the workers in the vineyard).

  1. Where is the concept of infinity in the parable of the vineyard? Every worker has worked for at least an hour, and everyone gets the same amount of money - its subtext is about the infinite reward we may receive, but the parable itself is certainly finite...
  2. My Hebrew is worse than my Greek, but to my understanding the Greek idea of infinity/infinities (actual vs. potential) is more sophisticated than the one in the Old Testament. In fact you'll find that in the psalms the same word is used to describe the number of the stars and God's infinite wisdom: מִסְפָּר (mispar)

AugustO 16:46, 14 September 2012 (EDT)

The owner of the vineyard has infinite wealth relative to the workers. The parable is illogical only to those who resist the concept of infinity, as non-believers did until mathematicians accepted the concept more than 1500 years later.--Andy Schlafly 10:03, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
Do you say that the early Christians didn't understand the parable as the generally hadn't a concept of infinity?
And, pray, how does the owner of the vineyard has infinite wealth relative to the workers? He wasn't even rich as Midas....
AugustO 10:13, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul? (Matthew 16:26) Interesting, how Matthew avoids the term infinite... AugustO 10:41, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

Light and Color

Light and Color

The transfiguration of Jesus is described with remarkable consistency in all three synoptic Gospels: in the fullness of light Jesus and his clothing display an intense white, whiter than any bleach could produce. This illustrates what was not discovered and accepted until nearly 1700 years later: that white is the combination of other fundamental colors, and the purest white light is formed by a perfectly full combination (see Prism).

The color white seems to be a universal symbol of purity - I fail to see who this is a description that white is the combination of other fundamental colors, and the purest white light is formed by a perfectly full combination - did Jesus wear a rainbow - coat? AugustO 17:34, 14 September 2012 (EDT)

Your first sentence seems to be missing something, and I don't see its relevance anyway. The Bible is not describing a symbol, but an actual event. No, the fullness of light is not a rainbow because the colors are not separated from each other.--Andy Schlafly 00:06, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

Christians do not "mock" creationist concepts

atheists are the ones who "mocked" the creationist concept for about 100 years; Christians do not "mock" creationist concepts

They would mock them - if they didn't see them as creationist concepts! Wegener was mocked by the American Association of Petroleum Geologists in a conference in the 1920s. Were there only atheists in this association? No, of course not. But there were Christians which supported other theories, partly perhaps as those seemed to be more easily reconcilable with Scripture. Who are we to criticize them for not recognizing Wegener's theory as better fitting into Biblical scientific foreknowledge? --AugustO 11:18, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

Atheism promotes pseudo-intellectual mockery in a way that Christianity does not.--Andy Schlafly 16:24, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
Any examples? AugustO 16:29, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
Are you joking? Perhaps 90% of atheistic commentary against creationist concepts is juvenile mockery, with very little logical or scientific substance. This was as true in the Scopes Trial (1925) as it is today.--Andy Schlafly 16:39, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
Well, more than 90% of Christian commentary against evolutionary concepts is juvenile mockery, at least on this site (see Category:Satire). So this doesn't corroborate your statement Atheism promotes pseudo-intellectual mockery in a way that Christianity does not. --AugustO 16:49, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
Your link is to far less than 90% of this site. See Counterexamples to Evolution and Counterexamples to an Old Earth and Radiometric Dating, and numerous other entries. Also, there is not a tradition of Christians mocking atheists anything like the converse, which dates back to the Passion of Christ.--Andy Schlafly 17:17, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

A few points:

1. Conservapedia has a 21 page article on evolution which quotes/cites prominent evolutionists amongst others. The article has over 300 footnotes.

2. Elijah mocked the prophets of Baal.

3. The majority of satires were on atheism and not evolutionism. The Bible says that atheists are fools and that honor is not fitting for a fool. The most ardent evolutionists post WWII have been atheists/agnostics. The Conservapedia atheism article is 54 pages long with over 300 footnotes and cites atheists among others.

4. Evolutionists have shown themselves to be deceitful cowards. Deceitful cowards deserve to be mocked. See: Atheism and deception and Atheism and cowardice and Creation scientists tend to win the creation vs. evolution debates

5. Shockofgod loves the satires and is going to do a whole series of weekly videos on the satires of atheism and evolutionism.

I hope that clears things up. Conservative 17:20, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

Thanks, I think you made my case very well. AugustO 17:25, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
August, you haven't addressed the fundamental way that atheists have relied primarily on juvenile mockery against creationism, dating back to the Passion of Christ as well as statements by Clarence Darrow during the Scopes Trial.--Andy Schlafly 17:33, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
My point is that the degree of juvenile mockery of both sides is roughly the same. And were there any atheists present at the Passion of Christ? I doubt it: there were Romans of various religious beliefs (Rome was quite tolerant) and Jews, but atheist aren't mentioned in the Bible... AugustO 17:41, 15 September 2012 (EDT)
It's easy to compare the statements by Clarence Darrow against the statements by William Jennings Bryan during the Scopes Trial. There's no doubt that Darrow relied on mockery far, far more than Bryan did.--Andy Schlafly 17:49, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

AugustO, a few more points:

1. God willing, the Evangelical Covenant Church in Germany will spread the 15 questions that evolutionists cannot satisfactorily answer in Germany. Unlike the Protestant denomination that you belong to, they are growing in Germany.

2. One of the largest conservative Christian ministries in the world linked to my atheism and evolution articles.

3. The Concerned Women of America (CWA) website links to my atheism and evolution articles. CWA is the largest women organization in America. Ergo, conservative ladies love my atheism and evolution articles!

4. If memory serves, you indicated that the German Protestant denomination, which has some its member churches give homosexual "couple" "blessings", is shrinking.

I strongly suspect one of the reasons is that your Protestant denomination church body has a sub-replacement level of births. In 2010, Germany had a 1.39 children per woman which is far below the 2.1 replacement level of births.

All true conservative women love babies.

All true able bodied conservative Protestant married men love their wives and are hard workers with the Protestant work ethic. They are able to have big families.

Ergo, your Protestant church body is likely filled with liberal men and women!

5. Adolf Hitler was a German evolutionary racist and most of the evolutionists German public were enthusiastic followers of him and he spoke before enthusiastic crowds. Conservative 18:59, 15 September 2012 (EDT)

  1. Unlike the Protestant denomination that you belong to, they are growing in Germany. Indeed, and extrapolating the current trends this Germany-wide operating church will have as many members as my church which is restricted mainly to the area of Northern Hesse in just 100 - 150 years.
  2. One of the largest conservative Christian ministries in the world linked to my atheism and evolution articles. Which one? I had troubles to find this link
  3. The Concerned Women of America (CWA) website links to my atheism and evolution articles. Indeed, it does - sort of: You have to look very hard to find this link. Using the on-site search option, Conservapedia is mentioned once in a footnote in the article Cutting the Cord - The Case for Defunding Planned Parenthood from Feb 2011. However the link is to Planned Parenthood#Planned Parenthood's Teen Website Gets It Barred from California High School and not Atheism or Evolution. But there is this article by Matt Barber which praises Conservapedia and mentions its articles on on topics ranging from atheism, to homosexuality, to the theory of evolution and so on. Sadly this article is quite dated - and nothing links to it on the CWA website.
  4. If memory serves, you indicated that the German Protestant denomination, which has some its member churches give homosexual "couple" "blessings", is shrinking. and the population of Germany is shrinking, too. What has this to do with the topic at hand? Is the position of the religious bodies in Malaysia or Indonesia more valid as their populations are growing? All true able bodied conservative Protestant married men love their wives and are hard workers with the Protestant work ethic. They are able to have big families. And many choose not to have big families, but only one to three children. Is this wrong? How many brothers and sisters do you have? How big a family are you planning to have when you reach maturity?
  5. Adolf Hitler spoke unfortunately often before crowds in which you would find only few atheists, Nordics, but an overwhelming number of Christians who he laid astray - but Christians non the less. If his party had relied only on atheists it would have amassed the 5.3 million members it had in 1939...

Growing obesity problem in the world plus obesity problem in the atheist population

This know also, that in the last days perilous times shall come. For men shall be lovers of their own selves, covetous, boasters, proud, blasphemers, disobedient to parents, unthankful, unholy, Without natural affection, trucebreakers, false accusers, incontinent, fierce, despisers of those that are good, treacherous, rash, conceited, lovers of pleasure rather than lovers of God-- 2 Timothy 3:1-4

While Paul enumerates many sins of men in the end times, gaining weight isn't mentioned explicitly. Reading these verses I don't get the image that epidemic obesity is a sign of the end times. AugustO 17:52, 24 September 2012 (EDT)

Are you claiming that hedonism is not a major cause for obesity? If so, why? Is the Christian conservative Chuck Norris wrong about obesity primarily being caused by hedonism? See: Chuck Norris on the topic of obesity If so, why? Conservative 18:29, 24 September 2012 (EDT)
AugustO, I reread your criticism. It was valid. I removed the material. Thanks. Conservative (talk) 23:46, 13 November 2016 (EST)
Has anyone in your collective gained weight lately ;-) ? No, seriously, thanks - perhaps you can take a look at the other points I've made over the last five years on this talk-page.... --AugustO (talk) 07:33, 20 November 2016 (EST)

Your welcome. Second, I don't think me being a mediator between you and the owner of the website would change matters significantly. Conservative (talk) 12:00, 20 November 2016 (EST)

I'm just happy that you have changed your mind and hope that it wasn't for the last time... --AugustO (talk) 14:18, 20 November 2016 (EST)

Seriously disappointed...

@Aschlafly. Unfortunately, I found your last edit to this article to be completely absurd. You added the following: "A storm developed over the water while Jesus slept (i.e., chaos develops when God is not observing), and it was Jesus's awaking to observe it that calmed the storm."

"(...when God is not observing)"!? What sort of arrogant foolishness of man is this? The Almighty God is omnipotent and omnipresent in His revealed form! There is NOTHING that happens without His observation! Your edit seems to deny the Holy Trinity. Yet, even worse, casts Jesus down to the level of Fallen Man (who can be easily mistaken upon awakening from sleep). I hope you can find my knee-jerk reaction to be proven wrong. --DonnyC 05:36, 1 February 2013 (EST)

when it quotes the devil, which is the word for chaos

I don't know a thing about quantum mechanics but I know "devil" is not the word for "chaos". It comes from "diabalos", which is Greek for "slanderer". Satan certainly works to create chaos and turmoil in our lives but that is not what devil means. I would try to make your edit better without this part of the statement but I don't know anything about the science you are talking about. Nate 22:58, 28 February 2013 (EST)

We have an entry on devil, and I should have linked to it. My Merriam Webster Collegiate's dictionary says its first etymological meaning is "to throw across."--Andy Schlafly 23:08, 28 February 2013 (EST)
Interesting definition. I see that from a Greek concordance that those words are there in the definition in English but it looks like your translation is pretty loose. http://biblesuite.com/greek/1228.htm The Biblical use means "slander" and never "chaos" as far as I can tell looking at Strong's. Nate. Nate 23:55, 28 February 2013 (EST)
Strong's and older translations tend to prefer philosophical meanings of words, when today a more scientific connotation can be more informative.--Andy Schlafly 00:38, 1 March 2013 (EST)
But why do you say that? The concordance tracks the meaning of the Greek word as it is used in the Bible. There is no scientific connotation. Diabolos means "slanderer". That is what Satan is! The Defamer. Nate 00:53, 1 March 2013 (EST)
You raise an interesting issue. I'll think about this further and do some more research.--Andy Schlafly 00:56, 1 March 2013 (EST)
διαβάλλω literally means this: "to throw across." Its etymology is clear, being a combination of διά (meaning through or between) and βάλλω (which means "to throw"). Strong's is not precise enough here, and this illustrates the benefits of looking again at how words are being translated.--Andy Schlafly 22:06, 1 March 2013 (EST)

Andrew Schlafly, you have a history of inventing new meanings and translations when it pleases you. If you take out your Liddell-Scott, you'll find that neither διάβόλος nor διαβάλλω have anything to do with chaos or disorder. Yes, διαβάλλω is contracted from διά and βάλλω and it means "to throw or carry over or across", but it is literally used to describe a move in wrestling or "to pass over, cross". So it is generally used to describe the throw of a single item, e.g. your opponent when wrestling or yourself (used reflexively as "to cross") - that's not how one creates chaos". Figuratively, it means "to attack a man's character, calumniate", "to speak or state slanderously", "deceive by false accounts", etc. To stress my (and Liddell's and Scott's point): διαβάλλω does not mean to create chaos, it has nothing to do with disorder. διάβόλος is a slanderer, διάβόλος doesn't mean creator of chaos. There is no evidence that it is even used literally in the sense of someone passing, etc.! As with ἰδού, I doubt that you have a shred of evidence (and even less a scholarly source) to redefine nearly 3000 years of usage of this words... --AugustO 09:20, 3 March 2013 (EST)

This all seems to be rather missing the point. If Luke 4.6 is a reference to uncertainty at the quantum level, then it is most certainly a figurative reference. But isn't the viewpoint of this blog that the Bible should be interpreted literally? --DHouser 10:13, 9 May 2013 (EDT)

To repeat my point: διαβάλλω doesn't mean throw over, topple, or overturn (like ἀνατροπεύς). It has nothing to do with chaos. No one but Andrew Schlafly has ever connected this word to chaos. --AugustO (talk) 14:36, 13 March 2016 (EDT)

Hubris of Man

I find this edit to be rather troubling. It is important to note that there are many acts of devine intervention or power described in the Bible, that will always be beyond human technology. While it is nice to observe that some items described in the Bible foresaw subsequent technological developments, the Bible does not predict that all things described in it will ultimately become possible through advances in human technology. Nor is it valid to re-translate the Bible to add technological predictions. Finally, if the human population of the earth grows faster than the ability to produce food, as a matter of mathematics and logic, a point will be reached in the future when the population will exceed the ability of the earth to feed it. This is not a liberal vs. conservative issue, just mathematics. While birth control and the AIDS epidemic have trimmed the population growth curve, the problem exists over the very long term. Let's show some humility and acknowledge the limitations of human technology. Man should not aspire to hold all of the powers of God. 14:16, 18 August 2013 (EDT)

The fallacy is in the "if": "if the human population of the earth grows faster than the ability to produce food." This "if" has never occurred and never would occur, because man has always been able to produce more than he needs to consume.--Andy Schlafly 16:02, 18 August 2013 (EDT)
Thank you for your response. First, Robert Malthus wrote An Essay on the Principle of Population (1798), one of the earliest and most influential books on population. He correctly predicted exponential population growth. People feared that eventually, the maximum ability of the Earth to sustain a population would be reached. Admittedly, population growth has been tempered due to birth control and the AIDS epidemic, but at some point growth will accelerate and one can foresee the limit eventually being reached even with further technological advances. I don't see the Bible contradicting that result, and the article does not present a fair picture of the topic. Second, the Bible describes many miraculous things that were beyond human technology at the time it was written. Some could inspire technological advances, but other miracles described in the Bible will always be beyond human technology (e.g., the parting of the Red Sea.) I believe the article should show some humility and acknowledge the limitations of human technology. Man should not aspire to hold all of the powers of God. Thanks, Wschact 20:21, 18 August 2013 (EDT)


Distance of Oldest Star to Earth

How can the source be trusted? It says the oldest star is 13.7 billion years old and implies that stars have been observed farther away, so this contradicts the article's assertion that creation occurred 6,000 years ago. How can the distance of the oldest star be taken as fact but other inconvenient facts be ignored? --Randall7 17:10, 22 February 2014 (EST)

Articles are cited here for their facts, not for any additional liberal speculation or spin that is included. There is no atheistic reason to claim 6,000 light-years away if it were not true. The confirmation of the Bible by a scientific culture that tends to be atheistic in outlook is remarkable.--Andy Schlafly 19:12, 22 February 2014 (EST)
Thanks for rephrasing that for me. BarrySM 10:28, 23 February 2014 (EST)
In all seriousness, though... The article is talking about the oldest star, not the farthest star. If we were citing it to mean that no star is farther than 6,000 light-years, then the source simply doesn't hold up. And if the source is not being cited for that reason, then the statement has no grounds. Could you further clarify, please? JSchwartz 20:48, 23 February 2014 (EST)
The age of the universe is best estimated by looking at the oldest star, not a younger one. Claims of enormous distances for younger stars are disproven by the horizon problem.--Andy Schlafly 23:17, 23 February 2014 (EST)

Negative Numbers

Sorry for my misunderstanding, but how do any of the Bible passages cited provide examples of negative numbers, especially within multiplication? If we could provide that citation in-article, it would also improve the quality. JSchwartz 20:51, 23 February 2014 (EST)

Malthusianism and the economics of plenty

William Bradford's writing in his diary provides a good example of God's powers and use of conservative economics,(Bradford writes about his thankfulness for God's wisdom in that very way almost word for word) but its not the examples from the Old/New Testament as written about in the article. Progressingamerica (talk) 10:57, 19 September 2015 (EDT)

Thanks for improving the citation. Do you have any additional edits you'd like to make on this particular point?--Andy Schlafly (talk) 11:22, 19 September 2015 (EDT)
Not at the moment, no. The Bradford example could be outside of the scope of the article to begin with, once better citations can be introduced. I had it in mind as a placeholder in the context of the prior reverted edit. Progressingamerica (talk) 11:52, 19 September 2015 (EDT)

Water on Mars

It occurs to me that, among all the hullabaloo about water on Mars, it would be worthwhile to point out that water beyond Earth is old news to Christians; the Bible clearly established the existence of the "waters above" long before astronomers even thought about hypothesizing it...and, indeed, before there was even a formal discipline of astronomy! --Benp (talk) 18:32, 28 September 2015 (EDT)

Excellent point. We need to add this somewhere in the entry itself.--Andy Schlafly (talk) 20:55, 28 September 2015 (EDT)

Embarrassing Error

Andy, you write in an edit comment:

[Biblical scientific foreknowledge] guides a more precise translation of verses that describe scientific-related events, such as Jesus's Calming the Storm

... and you even link to the your Essay:Calming the Storm. You are still ignoring the embarrassing error in this essay, i.e., that your interpretation of the text depends on your ignorance of the declination of the verb λέγω! See Talk:Essay:Calming the Storm. Your "more precise translation" is just a joke...

Ignorance is not always bliss, sometimes it makes you just looking stupid! --AugustO (talk) 16:55, 9 March 2016 (EST)

Calming the Storm

Andy wants us to believe that it was the observation of the storm which calmed it, and that Jesus didn't speak. He writes:


A storm developed over the water while Jesus slept (i.e., chaos develops when God is not observing), and it was Jesus' awaking to observe it that calmed the storm. This famous calming of the storm is typically translated as the result of a "rebuke" by Jesus of the bad weather. But a closer look at the Greek reveals that the key term means "judge" rather than "rebuke", and thus it was the act of Jesus observing the chaos that caused it to "collapse" into an orderly state, similar to the effect of observing a wave function.

and at Essay:Calming the Storm he says:


In the Mark verse above, traditional translations insert the word "said" as though Jesus caused the calming by verbally ordering the sea to be still. But "λέγω" -- the Greek term used for said in some versions -- does not appear in the Greek above, and where it does appear in Greek versions its real meaning is to "lay", to "cause to lie down," or to "put to sleep." It only has a connotation of speaking when used in a context of verbal communication (as in putting one word with another), which is not the case here.

Unfortunately, this is just wrong. Mark's verse contains the words:

εἶπεν τῇ θαλάσσῃ Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο.
  • εἶπεν is a conjugate form of λέγω, in fact, it is 3rd person singular aorist active indicative. The obvious translation is "He said", or "He commanded". But perhaps He spoke to Himself?
  • No, He didn't: He addressed the sea (θάλασσα) directly, indicated by τῇ θαλάσσῃ, the dative of this feminine noun. But perhaps it was a silent exchange?
  • No, it wasn't: Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο is a command, imperative versions of the words Σιώπα ("silence") and φιμόω ("to muzzle"). This is direct speech: Σιώπα means "Silence!" and "πεφίμωσο" means "Be muzzled!"

Putting this all together we get:

He commanded the sea: "Silence! Be quite!

Andy's most basic mistake is that he didn't spot that εἶπεν is a form of the verb λέγω. Additionally, he didn't recognize the imperatives Σιώπα and πεφίμωσο. Or the dative, of θάλασσα... You have to make rookie mistakes in just five words to get read of the connotation of speaking...

--AugustO (talk) 09:24, 10 March 2016 (EST)

August, Mark wasn't there. Jesus did not speak aloud to a storm. He silently commanded it by observing it. Your translation is too literal to the point of missing the meaning, and ignoring the physics.--Andy Schlafly (talk) 09:44, 10 March 2016 (EST)
Really, that's your argument? Mark made stuff up? Therefore, "I, Andy Schlafly, know better than Mark the Evangelist, because Mark wasn't there?" Is this just hubris? Delusion? This is really a low-point for the CBP...
My translation is literal only as it is factual, and not just a mere invention. Grammar is important, you know...
--AugustO (talk) 10:26, 10 March 2016 (EST)
We still read the utterly silly sentence But "λέγω" -- the Greek term used for said in some versions -- does not appear in the Greek above, at Essay:Calming the Storm - showing everybody with a modest knowledge of Greek that you, Andy, lack the most basic understanding of this language. And you still have the audacity to claim that you are able to see the "meaning" of a verse while you are not able to recognize the words in it! That is just preposterous. --AugustO (talk) 15:19, 10 March 2016 (EST)
I said it in the edit summary, and it still applies here, so I might as well say it: Augusto, your criticism is harsh and doesn't even refute Andy's assertions. VargasMilan (talk) 18:37, 10 March 2016 (EST)
It seems that one needs a little Greek to see my point... --AugustO (talk) 18:58, 10 March 2016 (EST)
August, here as in other discussions on translation, you adhere to an overly literal and narrow view of the Greek, without fully considering the context, the physics, and ordinary literary tools of abstraction. For example, if you were translating a Greek equivalent of the phrase "a wake-up call," would you insist that could only mean that someone was awoken from sleep by an actual call?--Andy Schlafly (talk) 19:04, 10 March 2016 (EST)
As I previously explained above, λέγω does not mean merely to "say", but also means to "think" or to "mean" or even (originally) to "put to sleep." Moreover, Greek does not use quotation marks at all, so why would you insist on them in English?--Andy Schlafly (talk) 19:10, 10 March 2016 (EST)

(EC)

Before you consider the abstract, you have to understand the concrete. Without a decent foundation, a building will falter. You don't have the basic knowledge, so any of your contributions to the CBT is just guess-work based on ominous insights.
If I said that the verb "to be" is not used in the phrase "It was the lark", would you believe any translation of this sentence into another language which I proposed? No, of course not. Any of my Shakespeare translations would by dubious - even if I claimed that I know best what the bard really meant.
--AugustO (talk) 19:20, 10 March 2016 (EST)


To refresh your memory:

Stylistic standards

I was thinking about how I might modernize the language, and some questions occurred to me.

Firstly, should speech use quotation marks, which came into use long after the KJV? e.g.

  • And a voice came from heaven declaring, You are my beloved Son whom I love dearly.

would become:

  • And a voice came from heaven declaring, "You are my beloved Son whom I love dearly."

Secondly, is it necessary to begin as many verses with "And" as the KJV? Some verses clearly only comprise a portion of a sentence, and it seems to me that "Jesus appeared from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized by John in the Jordan River" is much more fluid than "And then Jesus appeared from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized by John in the Jordan River," but loses no meaning. DouglasA 18:18, 18 August 2009 (EDT)

Both of your points are superb. I'm learning myself: I did not realize that quotation marks came into use only after the KJV.
Please make your improvements directly on the content page. Well done!--Andy Schlafly 18:21, 18 August 2009 (EDT)

--AugustO (talk) 19:39, 10 March 2016 (EST)

Mark 4:38-41

In the following, I'm using context and grammar, so this paragraph can be a little bit taxing for someone with a very limited attention span. Please, nevertheless, try to read it carefully - instead of just skimming it...

The verb λέγω is not only used in in Mark 4:39, but in each of the verses 4:38 - 4:41. Let's have a look at these verses:

  • Mark 4:38

καὶ αὐτὸς ἦν ἐν τῇ πρύμνῃ ἐπὶ τὸ προσκεφάλαιον καθεύδων· καὶ ἐγείρουσιν αὐτὸν καὶ λέγουσιν αὐτῷ Διδάσκαλε, οὐ μέλει σοι ὅτι ἀπολλύμεθα;

There is the main text (orange/red), written in the third person as seen by a narrator. Here we find λέγουσιν, "(they) say". How do we know that they - i.e., the disciples - say something, and not only think it? Well, this part is followed by direct speech (blue). The most obvious indicator for this switch is Διδάσκαλε, unambiguously the vocative (masculine, singular) of διδάσκαλος, ου, ὁ "teacher". The vocative is used to address someone directly, not to think about someone. Another indicator for direct speech is the verb ἀπολλύμεθα;. It's in the first person plural, so the perspective has changed. Above the absence of quotation marks in Koine Greek was mentioned - Greek writers used techniques like those which I just talked about to show the difference between the main text and direct speech...

  • Mark 4:40

καὶ εἶπεν αὐτοῖς Τί δειλοί ἐστε; οὔπω ἔχετε πίστιν;

εἶπεν (the same form of λέγω as in Mark 4:39...) is the verb in the main text (red/orange): "He said". Again, there is no doubt that here something is said and not just thought, as again, direct speech (blue) is following, indicated by Τί, which is used as a question word, and the change of person and grammatical number of the verbs ἐστε and ἔχετε.

  • Mark 4:41

καὶ ἐφοβήθησαν φόβον μέγαν, καὶ ἔλεγον πρὸς ἀλλήλους Τίς ἄρα οὗτός ἐστιν ὅτι καὶ ὁ ἄνεμος καὶ ἡ θάλασσα ὑπακούει αὐτῷ;

Again, the main text is written in a past tense, this times, the direct speech is introduced by ἔλεγον "(they) said". Again, the direct speech can be detected as it is phrased as a question in the present tense (ἐστιν "(he) is"). But here is another interesting point: ἡ θάλασσα ὑπακούει αὐτῷ means "the sea obeys him", or better "the sea listens to him", as the verb ὑπακούω means "to obey what is heard" - another indicator that Jesus spoke to the sea aloud!


But now for

  • Mark 4:39

καὶ διεγερθεὶς ἐπετίμησεν τῷ ἀνέμῳ καὶ εἶπεν τῇ θαλάσσῃ Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο. καὶ ἐκόπασεν ὁ ἄνεμος, καὶ ἐγένετο γαλήνη μεγάλη.

Here, the main text (written in aorist, a kind of past tense) encloses Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο.. As in the following verse, εἶπεν is used: "He said". Or could it really mean "he observed [silently]"? Well, Σιώπα, πεφίμωσο. again shows a change of tense to indicate direct speech. As such, both verbs can best be seen as imperatives, i.e., direct commands.

It is preposterous to assume that the same construction (someone says to someone: "direct speech") was used in four consecutive verses, and just in one verse it isn't meant to represent spoken words. OTOH, it doesn't make sense to translate λέγω as "to observe [silently]" in any of the other three verses. In other words, Mark wrote "they said" - "he said" - "he said" - "they said", and not "they said" - "he observed" - "he said" - "they said" - the latter would not only have been confusing, but deliberately misleading.

But perhaps, Mark got it wrong - as he wasn't there (do you really want to open this can of worms?) That doesn't give you the liberty to change his text into a version of which you think that it is nearer to the actual truth! That may be, but then it isn't the Gospel according to Mark any longer, it is just "The Word of God How it should be according to Andrew Schlafly"....

--AugustO (talk) 18:08, 11 March 2016 (EST)

The sound you are hearing is me dropping the microphone, followed by two days of silence: I'll edit the article accordingly --AugustO (talk) 14:35, 13 March 2016 (EDT)

Need to discuss further on the talk page

I'm looking forward to your arguments! You could perhaps take a look at which word the disciples used to describe Jesus's "rebuke"...

Or will you use the article as your bully pulpit, ignoring any input by others, insisting that you are right, because you had a special insight? It is hard to ignore the fact that you are still claiming in your Essay:Calming the Storm that λέγω doesn't appear in Mark's verse, making you the laughing stock of everybody with even a little Greek! --AugustO (talk) 18:06, 13 March 2016 (EDT)

a closer look at the Greek reveals that the key term does not necessarily mean a spoken "rebuke"; it was the act of Jesus observing the chaos that caused it to "collapse" into an orderly state, similar to the effect of observing a wave function. Where is this closer look? I'm afraid that you, Andrew Schlafly, are the only one to have this revelation! But I'm waiting for your analysis of ἐπιτιμάω: there are 29 occurrences of this word in the New Testament (according to Strong), and all of them are compatible with a spoken command.... --AugustO (talk) 04:45, 14 March 2016 (EDT)

I am looking into this further today. Thanks for your patience.--Andy Schlafly (talk) 11:39, 18 March 2016 (EDT)
It is difficult to sort through the substance from the silly put-downs, but the bottom line is this: according to even the limited view of Strong's, λέγω is translated as "I say, speak; I mean, mention, tell." [1] (emphasis added). Strong, of course, was no modern physicist, and he was hampered by his own lack of abstraction. Strong's goes further to admit that "légō (originally, 'lay down to sleep,'" - which fits perfectly in the calming of the storm.
There is no reason to think that Mark, who was not there on the boat, was precisely quoting Jesus rather than describing His thoughts.
If you have something substantive in rebuttal, then please provide it without the ad hominems.--Andy Schlafly (talk) 23:34, 18 March 2016 (EDT)
  1. "It is difficult to sort through the substance from the silly put-downs" It took you eight months to delete the sentence But "λέγω" -- the Greek term used for said in some versions -- does not appear in the Greek above from your Essay:Calming the Storm! Perhaps I could have shortened this time if I had sugar-coated my contempt by flattery, but I think that this would have been dishonest: not to spot that εἶπεν is a form of λέγω is a school-boy's error, and deserves school-yard's mockery.
  2. "the bottom line is this: according to even the limited view of Strong's, λέγω is translated as "I say, speak; I mean, mention, tell." [2] (emphasis added)." λέγω is the nineth most used word in the Greek New Testament. It is the most used non-auxiliary verb - and εἰμί ("I am") is only used slightly more often (2,460 vs. 2,350 times.) Why? We talked about this above: as Biblical Greek has no quotation marks, direct speech is indicated by words like λέγω. It is used in this sense a couple of hundred times in the Gospel of Mark, even in the verses directly before and after Mark 4:39. It would be quite dishonest of Mark to use it in this single verse in a way it isn't used elsewhere in his Gospel, and in a way it hadn't been used for hundreds of years! Therefore all the translations which Strong is proposing describe verbal utterances.
  3. "Strong, of course, was no modern physicist, and he was hampered by his own lack of abstraction. Strong's goes further to admit that "légō (originally, 'lay down to sleep,'" - which fits perfectly in the calming of the storm." There is nothing abstract in this glorified quotation mark λέγω. If I go to a courthouse in New Jersey and present myself as a "solicitor", you have every right to believe that I'm misrepresenting myself as a laywer - even if I say that I use the word in its original sense - as the French did a couple of hundred years ago, and that I'm meaning "troublemaker", not "lawyer". The same holds for λέγω: in the context of the Gospel it means something like "to say", and no one but you would think of the meaning "to lay down to sleep".
  4. "There is no reason to think that Mark, who was not there on the boat, was precisely quoting Jesus rather than describing His thoughts." There is every reason to think that Mark described the events and dialogues faithfully as they were reported to him. Only very rarely His thoughts or feelings are described in the Gospels: just when they are obvious from his actions and words.
  5. "If you have something substantive in rebuttal, then please provide it without the ad hominems." Well, for substance, take a look at the second point of this enumeration - or read #Mark 4:38-41. But this is indeed a very personal matter, so "ad hominems" are of relevance:
    1. your ideas and translations are based on your personal insights - like your translation of Son of Man as "the Son, a human being", or your Biblical rebuttals to the theory of relativity. Until now, only the likes of PetyrB have been claimed to be able to follow your lines of thoughts when it comes to these insights.
    2. you have shown your lack of Greek time and time again. You claim that you just don't have this "literal and narrow view of the Greek" - but this "literal and narrow view" comes from knowing the basics, and being actually capable of translating a Greek text, and not only paraphrasing the KJB with help from a glossary.
It is frustrating to wait for eight months for the correction of a silly mistake (see the first point) - there can be no surprise that I become frustrated and cranky, and perhaps even more snappish than necessary. But the "ad hominems", the personal remarks above are rooted in my experience of editing Conservapedia over the last years. I'll be happy if I'm proven wrong: you just have to come up with a well-thought reply, addressing each of my points in this sections and the sections above sincerely (i.e., other than by just repeating "λέγω can mean lay to rest") and diligently. It is an important matter, and it should be discussed in depths, or not at all.
--AugustO (talk) 10:21, 19 March 2016 (EDT)
Will it take another eight months? --AugustO (talk) 17:12, 28 March 2016 (EDT)
waiting for 2983 days... --AugustO (talk) 17:33, 10 April 2016 (EDT)

After 40 days and 40 nights just another observation: Andy claims that «Strong's goes further to admit that "légō originally [means] 'lay down to sleep,'" - which fits perfectly in the calming of the storm.» and cites as source http://biblehub.com/greek/3004.htm . In reality, Strong doesn't do anything like this. He only gives the short definition: I say, speak and the definition: (denoting speech in progress), (a) I say, speak; I mean, mention, tell, (b) I call, name, especially in the pass., (c) I tell, command.

So, Strong makes it clear that in the Bible, λέγω is used to denote speech in progress. He doesn't bother with irrelevant Homeric meanings. ..AugustO (talk) 07:48, 28 April 2016 (EDT)

Perhaps a little more dual attribution

I only read the lead section before posting this comment. I may revise after a more careful reading.

You may want to be a little more careful in the claims made in the lead section and, when appropriate, provide double-attribution. The prophecy of events in the Bible is OK but you should avoid revisionist claims in terms of specific scientific progress. It is sometimes very easy to take credit for specific aspects of scientific progress. I am just recommending caution and editorial review for the sake of protecting the reputation of the wiki as a trustworthy encyclopedia. An example might be a claim that it was G-d's Will that some fortunate historic event came out one way or the other (such as a military battle or potential Act of Nature) but it is more extraordinary to claim that a particular game of chess (or some such) was won through Divine Intervention. There are many scientific discoveries that came about in part because of accidents that can be treated as Acts of God, but attribution to the efforts of the researcher is also appropriate. One example might be the invention of the light bulb that was in part due to the grace of G-d but it was also due in part to Edison's persistence of making many hundreds of tries before he came upon a viable working model. Oh, I now see that my comments might be more appropriate over at Essay:Rebuttal to Biblical scientific foreknowledge. I am not sure I intend for a direct rebuttal but rather cautious claims and, to some degree, a meeting of the minds.--Amorrow (talk) 18:03, 12 January 2017 (EST)

Set Theory

What is paradoxical about this? It's "first in, last out", a concept, a few of hunters will have experienced after entering a narrow cave. --AugustO (talk) 20:03, 8 June 2019 (EDT)

You seem to be referring to this:
Set theory was unknown until the devout Christian Georg Cantor developed it in the late 1800s to understand God better. But Jesus taught, “So the last will be first, and the first last” (Matthew 20:16 ESV), a concept that is paradoxical except in set theory. This set-theory concept is also echoed by the repeated references to Jesus as the "Alpha and the Omega" in the Book of Revelation. (Revelation 1:8, 21:6, 22:13)
It is obviously paradoxical for “the last will be first, and the first last” in common situations ... except when viewed through the logic of set theory.--Andy Schlafly (talk) 00:07, 9 June 2019 (EDT)


  • εἰσιν οἱ ἔσχατοι πρῶτοι could be seen as paradoxical, but what is paradoxical about ἔσονται οἱ ἔσχατοι πρῶτοι - which is in Matthew 20:16? Has your position never changed over time?
  • Could you please explain in a little more detail the connection between set-theory and the concept? Perhaps in the language of set-theory? Thanks!

--AugustO (talk) 17:54, 10 June 2019 (EDT)

Sports

This entry seems especially dubious: the pagans - especially the ancient Greeks - were known for valuing "physical exercise" very much (look for γυμνάσιον)! --AugustO (talk) 07:34, 3 November 2019 (EST)

Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences

This article could point out that when Saint Paul writes about the different spiritual gifts (I think it was in one of his epistles to the Corinthians) he was predicting Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences. Carltonio (talk) 15:44, 22 November 2019 (EST)

Anaethestics

I find the following sentence confused and thus very confusing:

Had scientists and physicians been more openminded about Genesis 2:21 (perhaps they had considered it a miracle, and thus impossible for humans to achieve), they may have discovered anesthesia far sooner, and saved many more lives."

God was performing a miracle. And part of God's plan for humanity seems to have been that we would learn over a long period of time. The idea that science and scientists reject what the Bible says is nonsense. Rather God speaks differently to modern people whereas He was speaking to nomadic tribesmen in the Bible. He now speaks to an entirely different audience. The Bible is of great importance but God is the 'author of science and its modern discoveries also. To suggest otherwise is blasphemous according my understanding of religious faith. Please fix!! --RobLeonardWoo (talk) 14:57, August 5, 2022 (EDT)

Maybe I'm too literal minded, but this seems to be saying that God performed an operation using a general anesthetic when he cut out Adams rib. This is ludicrous – God used His supernatural powers. Likewise he did not create Eve in a test tube out of Adam's bone marrow or by some advanced genetic technology. Logical thinking indeed.--RobLeonardWoo (talk) 14:20, August 7, 2022 (EDT)

I've deleted the parenthetical, which detracts from the point. Miracles are possible, and many properly view miracles as signs of what is possible. Close-mindedness rejects the possibility.--Andy Schlafly (talk) 18:41, August 7, 2022 (EDT)

Illogical (irreligious?) article

I find this article puzzling. Yes, God knows all and it is therefore not surprising that the Bible should appear to foreshadow some scientific discoveries. But there seems to be a confusion. The Bible was written for an ancient nomadic people and so does not speak in the language of modern science. Likewise it is not a manual for building a computer or how to get to the moon. Furthermore while God, as Creator, has absolute knowledge, humanity through science, philosophy, the arts, etc. gradually, overtime reveals more and more about creation. The article needs to more clearly acknowledge human imperfection and that science is fallible, while still being part of God's plan. The idea that if a scientist is an atheist his science is bad is problematic. Think about it. Do we only accept technology or medical procedures developed by Christians." God moves in mysterious ways his wonders to perform" (William Cowper).--RobLeonardWoo (talk) 18:07, August 6, 2022 (EDT)

Maybe the argument is failure to acknowledge God's sovereignty contaminates everything. Sure, someone may argue, "What about Prof. such-and-such who discovered treatment for XYZ disease? He was an atheist." That has to be measured against him (or they) being held up as a role model for God deniers and God haters, and the damage human pride has done to the species. RobSIch bin ein breakfast taco 18:29, August 6, 2022 (EDT)
Even an atheist scientists can be doing God's work, do you not agre? Most of the evil over the centuries has been caused by religious organizations and human greed not science. Where science has caused harm it has been mostly business men and politicians, along with the profit motif, that has been to blame, whatever, the faith of the scientists involved may have been. Also, it is worth noting the profound insights found in other religious texts, especially Buddhism. An atheist scientist who is awed by God's creation is closer to God than many who claim they are Christians, but who really worship materialism.--RobLeonardWoo (talk) 19:40, August 6, 2022 (EDT).
Interesting hypothesis. My determination: It's flawed. And for the sake of argument, I'm not going to argue it. RobSIch bin ein breakfast taco 20:39, August 6, 2022 (EDT)

No one has yet explained to me the point of this illogical article.

(1) Why would God provide foreknowledge of things to the Israelites that have yet to be discovered? (2) Why criticize scientists for not making discoveries sooner, when this was clearly God's intention that humankind would over aeons do this? (3) God represents perfection whereas scientists only strifes for perfection and cannot be criticized for failing, if they acts in good faith. (4) Religion has frequently opposed many scientific discoveries that are claimed here as biblical foreknowledge. (5) Maybe the article ends up implying God that made the mistake of not revealing, at the beginning, what science has discovered?

Why is the article needed: to bash scientists? –or to to criticize God for not giving Adam and Eve access to the marvels of 20th century technology?

This article is utterly illogical. Delete it or get someone who understands theology to rewrite. A genuine intelligent article on the dangers of worshipping of science to the detriment of spiritual values is needed, not this pseudo, fake "philosophy"/"theology".--RobLeonardWoo (talk) 12:59, August 7, 2022 (EDT)

Predictions of scientific possibilities are immensely helpful. I don't understand your criticism.--Andy Schlafly (talk) 18:47, August 7, 2022 (EDT)
My impression is RLW confuses science with human pride; he sounds as if he is of the school that teaches, "We don't need God. We have science. We're smarter than God." RobSIch bin ein breakfast taco 19:37, August 7, 2022 (EDT)
You are confused RobS. My point is that God is the supreme Creator and as the creator of humankind the source of science. I am not denying that science can be misused and corrupted. But just imagine what your life would be like if you were living in biblical times. --RobLeonardWoo (talk) 13:32, August 8, 2022 (EDT).
The Amish live that way, and are thriving better than atheistic society. Some atheists say we should strive to live "off-the-grid", which is how people lived in biblical times.--Andy Schlafly (talk) 13:41, August 8, 2022 (EDT)

Presumably you , Andy Schlafly, make frequent use of modern science, other than the internet and you and/or family have benefited from the advances made by modern medical science. What is needed is an intelligent discussion of the harm caused to spiritual values by a worship of science and materialistic values, not this waffle. I do not understand how these supposed biblical predictions are "immensely helpful". Also, as noted previously, the idea of God performing surgery, using a general anaesthetic so totally absurd. But I must be misunderstanding you and RobS, there is no other explanation. RobLeonardWoo

Many lives could have been saved or improved if anesthesia had been discovered earlier. Why wasn't it? Because atheistic scientists are closed-minded about Biblical scientific foreknowledge. If more scientists had been open-minded earlier about the anesthesia described in Genesis, more would have benefited from anesthesia.--Andy Schlafly (talk) 02:41, August 9, 2022 (EDT)

Construction of ancient sky-high structures

I do not understand why this section was restored. The Bible recorded an historical fact and modern archeology has confirmed this. What has this to do with "scientific foreknowledge? Does the Truth of the Bible need to be confirmed? I don't understand the purpose of this compendium of biblical trivia. But I will remove this page from my watch list! --RobLeonardWoo (talk) 14:37, August 8, 2022 (EDT)

Leaving this discussion with a proverbial Parthian shot? We see lots of those here. Until the 1900s some thought skyscrapers were impossible. Not those who read the Bible with an open mind.--Andy Schlafly
Presumably there were open-minded readers of the Bible before 1901, including architects and engineers. I doubt that all engineers/scientists are atheists, and they especially were not prior to 1901. You are blaming God because he did not give humankind enough knowledge in Eden! Skyscapers were not built until recently because that is how God planned it; use your God-given brain! --RobLeonardWoo (talk) 10:16, August 9, 2022 (EDT)

Source for scientific evidene for circumsision on the 8th day

I want to add the following link as a source for that section of the article under the bible and health practices, but am unable to add the link as a reference (am only used to doing it with wikipedia smart editor, not with wikitext). Could someone please add this? Thanks. https://www.researchgate.net/publication/321462229_Haematological_Basis_of_8th_Day_Male_Child_Circumcision_in_The_Holy_Bible Ethan Parmet (talk) 17:06, September 11, 2022 (EDT)

Posted the good link as suggested. Well done!--Andy Schlafly (talk) 20:26, September 11, 2022 (EDT)